Free TEAS practice test
A practice test with the same four sections and order as the real TEAS 7, and topics weighted like ATI's content outline.
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TEAS 7 practice test
- 152 questions
- Reading · Math · Science · English and Language Usage
- 209 min in exam mode
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Text 1: From a Personal Fitness Blog
Last spring I bought a step counter and set a goal of 10,000 steps every day. Within two months I had lost 15 pounds, and I had more energy than I'd had in years. My neighbor tried the same plan, and she says she sleeps better than ever. The lesson is obvious: 10,000 steps is the magic number for good health. If you are walking less than that, you are wasting your time. Lace up your shoes, hit your number, and watch your life change.
Text 2: From a Community Health Newsletter
Many people track their daily steps, and a step counter can be a handy way to notice how much you move. The federal activity guideline for adults, however, is not written in steps. The CDC recommends that adults get at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity, such as brisk walking, each week. That could be 30 minutes a day, 5 days a week, and the time can be spread out and broken into smaller chunks, such as several short walks. Adults also need muscle-strengthening activity on at least 2 days a week. For people who are not active now, the CDC's message is encouraging: some physical activity is better than none, so starting small still counts.
With which statement would the authors of both texts most likely agree?
Correct answer: C
To compare two texts, first identify each author's main claim, then look for the idea both of them support, even if they support it for different reasons. Text 1 praises walking as life-changing, and Text 2 names brisk walking as an example of the moderate activity adults need. The two authors disagree about whether a step target or a weekly total of minutes is the right measure, so statements that belong to only one text cannot be shared views.
- A Only Text 1 makes this claim; Text 2 says that some activity is better than none and that starting small still counts, which contradicts it.
- B Only Text 2 takes this position; the author of Text 1 treats a daily step count as the key measure.
- C Correct: Text 1 credits walking with major health changes, and Text 2 lists brisk walking as moderate-intensity activity that counts toward the guideline.
- D Only Text 2 mentions muscle-strengthening activity; Text 1 never discusses it, so there is no evidence its author would agree.
Learn this topic: How to compare the themes and ideas of two texts 5-minute lesson
Source: CDC, Adult Activity: An Overview ·
The Garden on Level 6
Two years ago, the top level of Westbrook Medical Center's parking garage was bare concrete. Today it holds twenty raised beds of tomatoes, peppers, herbs, and flowers. The garden was the idea of Rosa Delgado, a pharmacy technician who started with four beds and a borrowed hose. This year, more than seventy employees, from billing clerks to surgeons, signed up to help.
Volunteers work in pairs during their breaks or before and after their shifts. Each pair waters and weeds its own bed, and anyone may pick from the shared herb boxes near the stairwell. The harvest goes to the staff cafeteria and to a free produce table in the main lobby every Friday.
Members say the garden has given them more than vegetables. Respiratory therapist Kwame Asante says he used to spend his breaks scrolling on his phone. "Now I know half the people in the lab by name," he said. The cafeteria has noticed a change, too. Since the garden began, it has run out of fresh herbs far less often, and the chef now plans a weekly special around whatever is ripe.
The garden committee has asked the medical center to install a second water spigot and a shade awning over the far beds. The request is under review.
Interested? Sign-up sheets for next season are posted outside the Employee Health office.
Based on the passage, why has the cafeteria most likely run out of fresh herbs less often since the garden began?
Correct answer: D
An inference combines clues the passage gives you. The passage says the harvest goes to the staff cafeteria and that the garden grows herbs; it then says the cafeteria runs out of fresh herbs less often since the garden began. Putting those clues together supports the conclusion that the garden is supplying the cafeteria, while the other choices depend on facts the passage never gives or contradicts.
- A The passage never mentions the cafeteria's supplier, so this relies on information that is not in the text.
- B Nothing in the passage suggests fewer people eat in the cafeteria; this is an unsupported guess.
- C This contradicts the passage, which says the chef now plans a weekly special around whatever is ripe.
- D Correct: the garden grows herbs, its harvest goes to the cafeteria, and the shortages eased after the garden began.
Learn this topic: How to make inferences and draw conclusions from a passage 5-minute lesson
Source: Long Beach City College WRSC, Questioning (How to Question to Make Inferences) · Iowa Reading Research Center, Making Inferences ·
The Garden on Level 6
Two years ago, the top level of Westbrook Medical Center's parking garage was bare concrete. Today it holds twenty raised beds of tomatoes, peppers, herbs, and flowers. The garden was the idea of Rosa Delgado, a pharmacy technician who started with four beds and a borrowed hose. This year, more than seventy employees, from billing clerks to surgeons, signed up to help.
Volunteers work in pairs during their breaks or before and after their shifts. Each pair waters and weeds its own bed, and anyone may pick from the shared herb boxes near the stairwell. The harvest goes to the staff cafeteria and to a free produce table in the main lobby every Friday.
Members say the garden has given them more than vegetables. Respiratory therapist Kwame Asante says he used to spend his breaks scrolling on his phone. "Now I know half the people in the lab by name," he said. The cafeteria has noticed a change, too. Since the garden began, it has run out of fresh herbs far less often, and the chef now plans a weekly special around whatever is ripe.
The garden committee has asked the medical center to install a second water spigot and a shade awning over the far beds. The request is under review.
Interested? Sign-up sheets for next season are posted outside the Employee Health office.
Which of the following conclusions are supported by the passage? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C
A supported conclusion is one you can point to in the text, even if the text never states it directly. Billing clerks are among the volunteers, and a request for a second spigot means there is one now. Choices that need outside knowledge, contradict a stated detail, or stretch a number into "most" are not supported.
- A Correct: the volunteers include billing clerks, whose work is not direct patient care.
- B The passage never compares the nutrition of garden and store vegetables; this relies on outside ideas, not the text.
- C Correct: the committee asked for a second water spigot, which implies the garden has one now.
- D This contradicts the passage, which says volunteers work during breaks or before and after their shifts.
- E The passage says more than seventy employees signed up but never gives the total staff size, so "most" goes beyond the evidence.
Learn this topic: How to make inferences and draw conclusions from a passage 5-minute lesson
Source: Long Beach City College WRSC, Questioning (How to Question to Make Inferences) · Iowa Reading Research Center, Making Inferences · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 1.5 Writing Process: Thinking Critically About a "Text" ·
The Garden on Level 6
Two years ago, the top level of Westbrook Medical Center's parking garage was bare concrete. Today it holds twenty raised beds of tomatoes, peppers, herbs, and flowers. The garden was the idea of Rosa Delgado, a pharmacy technician who started with four beds and a borrowed hose. This year, more than seventy employees, from billing clerks to surgeons, signed up to help.
Volunteers work in pairs during their breaks or before and after their shifts. Each pair waters and weeds its own bed, and anyone may pick from the shared herb boxes near the stairwell. The harvest goes to the staff cafeteria and to a free produce table in the main lobby every Friday.
Members say the garden has given them more than vegetables. Respiratory therapist Kwame Asante says he used to spend his breaks scrolling on his phone. "Now I know half the people in the lab by name," he said. The cafeteria has noticed a change, too. Since the garden began, it has run out of fresh herbs far less often, and the chef now plans a weekly special around whatever is ripe.
The garden committee has asked the medical center to install a second water spigot and a shade awning over the far beds. The request is under review.
Interested? Sign-up sheets for next season are posted outside the Employee Health office.
Which of the following best describes the author's main purpose in writing the passage?
Correct answer: C
To infer purpose, ask what the author wants readers to know, believe, or do, and look closely at the ending. Most of this passage describes the garden's history, routine, and effects, and it closes with an invitation to sign up, which shows the author also wants to recruit volunteers. A choice built on one detail, or on topics the passage never covers, does not describe the purpose of the whole text.
- A The passage never discusses health benefits; choosing this brings in outside knowledge about gardening.
- B The request is one detail, and the author reports it neutrally ("under review") without arguing for it.
- C Correct: the passage describes the garden throughout and ends with an invitation to sign up for next season.
- D Costs are never mentioned, so this purpose has no support in the text.
Learn this topic: How to make inferences and draw conclusions from a passage 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Purposes · Long Beach City College WRSC, Questioning (How to Question to Make Inferences) ·
Study Room Check-In: Harmon Health Sciences Library
Students may reserve a second-floor study room for up to two hours at a time. Each room is checked in at the door using the room's tablet. Please read all of these directions before you begin.
When you arrive, find the tablet mounted beside the door of the room you reserved. Tap Check In, and then scan your student ID card on the reader below the screen. Before you tap Check In, however, compare the name shown on the screen with the name on your reservation. If the names do not match, you are at the wrong room, so do not check in.
After you scan your card, wait for the light above the tablet. A green light means the room is ready for you. If the light turns red, do not scan your card again. Instead, take your ID card to the front desk on the first floor.
Check-in opens 5 minutes before your reserved start time. If no one has checked in within 15 minutes after the start time, the reservation is canceled and the room becomes available to anyone.
When you are finished, erase the whiteboard and take all of your belongings. Then tap End Session so the next student can use the room.
According to the directions, when is a study room reservation canceled?
Correct answer: C
Directions often put special conditions, such as deadlines, after the main steps, so read the whole set before you act. The late-arrival paragraph says a reservation is canceled if no one checks in within 15 minutes after the start time. The other numbers in the passage belong to different rules: check-in opens 5 minutes early, and the maximum booking is two hours.
- A This misreads the 5-minute rule: check-in opens 5 minutes before the start time, but checking in early is not required.
- B A red light sends the student to the front desk; the directions do not say the reservation is canceled.
- C Correct: the directions say the reservation is canceled if no one checks in within 15 minutes after the start time.
- D Two hours is the longest reservation allowed, not a reason a reservation is canceled.
Learn this topic: How to follow multi-step written directions 5-minute lesson
Source: Digital.gov Plain Language Guide, Organize the information · McMurrey, Online Technical Writing, 2.06 Instructions (LibreTexts) ·
Study Room Check-In: Harmon Health Sciences Library
Students may reserve a second-floor study room for up to two hours at a time. Each room is checked in at the door using the room's tablet. Please read all of these directions before you begin.
When you arrive, find the tablet mounted beside the door of the room you reserved. Tap Check In, and then scan your student ID card on the reader below the screen. Before you tap Check In, however, compare the name shown on the screen with the name on your reservation. If the names do not match, you are at the wrong room, so do not check in.
After you scan your card, wait for the light above the tablet. A green light means the room is ready for you. If the light turns red, do not scan your card again. Instead, take your ID card to the front desk on the first floor.
Check-in opens 5 minutes before your reserved start time. If no one has checked in within 15 minutes after the start time, the reservation is canceled and the room becomes available to anyone.
When you are finished, erase the whiteboard and take all of your belongings. Then tap End Session so the next student can use the room.
According to the directions, in what order should a student complete these steps when checking in? Put the steps in order from first to last.
- Scan your student ID card
- Wait for the light above the tablet
- Tap Check In
- Find the tablet beside the door of your reserved room
- Compare the name on the screen with the name on your reservation
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: Find the tablet beside the door of your reserved room → Compare the name on the screen with the name on your reservation → Tap Check In → Scan your student ID card → Wait for the light above the tablet
Order of mention is not always the order of doing. The directions mention tapping Check In before they mention comparing names, but "Before you tap Check In" moves the name check ahead of that step. Sequence words such as when you arrive, and then, and after you scan set the rest of the order.
- Scan your student ID card Fourth: "Tap Check In, and then scan your student ID card" puts scanning right after tapping.
- Wait for the light above the tablet Fifth: "After you scan your card, wait for the light" makes this the last check-in step.
- Tap Check In Third: it is mentioned before the name check, but "Before you tap Check In" means the comparison must come first.
- Find the tablet beside the door of your reserved room First: "When you arrive, find the tablet" opens the procedure.
- Compare the name on the screen with the name on your reservation Second: the signal word before places this ahead of tapping Check In, even though it is mentioned later.
Learn this topic: How to follow multi-step written directions 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Transitional Devices · McMurrey, Online Technical Writing, 2.06 Instructions (LibreTexts) ·
Study Room Check-In: Harmon Health Sciences Library
Students may reserve a second-floor study room for up to two hours at a time. Each room is checked in at the door using the room's tablet. Please read all of these directions before you begin.
When you arrive, find the tablet mounted beside the door of the room you reserved. Tap Check In, and then scan your student ID card on the reader below the screen. Before you tap Check In, however, compare the name shown on the screen with the name on your reservation. If the names do not match, you are at the wrong room, so do not check in.
After you scan your card, wait for the light above the tablet. A green light means the room is ready for you. If the light turns red, do not scan your card again. Instead, take your ID card to the front desk on the first floor.
Check-in opens 5 minutes before your reserved start time. If no one has checked in within 15 minutes after the start time, the reservation is canceled and the room becomes available to anyone.
When you are finished, erase the whiteboard and take all of your belongings. Then tap End Session so the next student can use the room.
Malik reserved a study room from 2:00 to 4:00 p.m. He arrives at 2:10 p.m., confirms that the name on the screen matches his reservation, taps Check In, and scans his ID card. The light above the tablet turns red. If Malik follows the directions, what should he do next?
Correct answer: C
Each condition in a set of directions must be checked against the situation as it is right now. Malik arrived 10 minutes after his start time, which is within the 15-minute limit, so his reservation was not canceled. Because the light turned red, the red-light condition applies: do not scan again, and take the ID card to the first-floor front desk.
- A The directions say that if the light turns red, the student should not scan the card again.
- B Malik checked in 10 minutes after the start time, which is within the 15-minute limit, so his reservation was still active.
- C Correct: the red-light condition applies, and the directions say to take the ID card to the front desk on the first floor.
- D End Session is the last step when a student is finished using a room; the directions never mention it for a red light.
Learn this topic: How to follow multi-step written directions 5-minute lesson
Source: McMurrey, Online Technical Writing, 2.06 Instructions (LibreTexts) · Digital.gov Plain Language Guide, Organize the information ·
Maple Grove Medical Center: Visitor Guide
Visiting Hours
General patient floors are open to visitors from 9:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. every day. The Maternity Unit allows two support persons at any time; all other maternity visitors may come from 1:00 p.m. to 7:00 p.m. Visitors to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) must call from the phone outside the unit doors before entering.Parking
Visitor parking is in Garage B on Elm Street. The first 30 minutes are free. After that, the rate is $2 per hour, up to a maximum of $10 per day. Visitors who expect to come back often can buy a weekly pass for $20 at the Information Desk in the main lobby.Food and Drink
The Harvest Café on the first floor serves hot meals from 6:30 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. on weekdays and from 8:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. on weekends. Vending machines on the second floor, next to the elevators, are available 24 hours a day. Please check with a nurse before bringing food to a patient, because some patients are on special diets.After-Hours Entrance
From 8:00 p.m. to 6:00 a.m., the main lobby doors are locked. Use the Emergency Department entrance on Oak Avenue, and sign in with the security officer, who will give you a visitor sticker.Wi-Fi
Connect to the network named MGMC-Guest. No password is needed, but you must accept the terms on the welcome screen.According to the guide, what is the most a visitor will pay to park in Garage B for one day?
Correct answer: B
To find a specific detail, turn the question into a target (here, a daily parking cost), jump to the heading that matches it, and then read the whole sentence for limit words. The Parking section says the rate is $2 per hour "up to a maximum of $10 per day," so $10 is the most a visitor pays for one day. The other numbers in the same section answer different questions.
- A $2 is the hourly rate, not the daily maximum; this comes from stopping at the first dollar amount in the section.
- B Correct: the Parking section caps the rate at a maximum of $10 per day.
- C $20 is the price of a weekly pass, a different detail from the same section.
- D Only the first 30 minutes are free; this comes from reading one sentence and ignoring the rest of the section.
Learn this topic: How to find one specific detail in a text fast 5-minute lesson
Source: University of Tennessee at Chattanooga, Center for Academic Support and Advisement: Skimming and Scanning · Excelsior University Online Writing Lab, Reading Lab: Previewing ·
Maple Grove Medical Center: Visitor Guide
Visiting Hours
General patient floors are open to visitors from 9:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. every day. The Maternity Unit allows two support persons at any time; all other maternity visitors may come from 1:00 p.m. to 7:00 p.m. Visitors to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) must call from the phone outside the unit doors before entering.Parking
Visitor parking is in Garage B on Elm Street. The first 30 minutes are free. After that, the rate is $2 per hour, up to a maximum of $10 per day. Visitors who expect to come back often can buy a weekly pass for $20 at the Information Desk in the main lobby.Food and Drink
The Harvest Café on the first floor serves hot meals from 6:30 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. on weekdays and from 8:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. on weekends. Vending machines on the second floor, next to the elevators, are available 24 hours a day. Please check with a nurse before bringing food to a patient, because some patients are on special diets.After-Hours Entrance
From 8:00 p.m. to 6:00 a.m., the main lobby doors are locked. Use the Emergency Department entrance on Oak Avenue, and sign in with the security officer, who will give you a visitor sticker.Wi-Fi
Connect to the network named MGMC-Guest. No password is needed, but you must accept the terms on the welcome screen.Dana arrives at the medical center at 3:00 p.m. on a Saturday to visit her father, who is on a general patient floor. Based on the guide, which of the following statements about her visit are accurate? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C, E
Scanning questions with several conditions require matching every detail of the situation (day, time, place) to the right section. General floors are open from 9:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. every day, the vending machines are open 24 hours, and the first 30 minutes of parking are free. The café's weekend hours end at 2:00 p.m., and the call-first rule applies only to the ICU.
- A Correct: general patient floors are open from 9:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. every day, and 3:00 p.m. falls in that window.
- B The café serves hot meals only until 2:00 p.m. on weekends; choosing this comes from reading the weekday hours instead.
- C Correct: the second-floor vending machines are available 24 hours a day.
- D The call-from-the-phone rule is for the Intensive Care Unit only; this applies a rule from the right section to the wrong unit.
- E Correct: the Parking section says the first 30 minutes are free.
Learn this topic: How to find one specific detail in a text fast 5-minute lesson
Source: University of Tennessee at Chattanooga, Center for Academic Support and Advisement: Skimming and Scanning · Excelsior University Online Writing Lab, Reading Lab: Previewing ·
Maple Grove Medical Center: Visitor Guide
Visiting Hours
General patient floors are open to visitors from 9:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. every day. The Maternity Unit allows two support persons at any time; all other maternity visitors may come from 1:00 p.m. to 7:00 p.m. Visitors to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) must call from the phone outside the unit doors before entering.Parking
Visitor parking is in Garage B on Elm Street. The first 30 minutes are free. After that, the rate is $2 per hour, up to a maximum of $10 per day. Visitors who expect to come back often can buy a weekly pass for $20 at the Information Desk in the main lobby.Food and Drink
The Harvest Café on the first floor serves hot meals from 6:30 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. on weekdays and from 8:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m. on weekends. Vending machines on the second floor, next to the elevators, are available 24 hours a day. Please check with a nurse before bringing food to a patient, because some patients are on special diets.After-Hours Entrance
From 8:00 p.m. to 6:00 a.m., the main lobby doors are locked. Use the Emergency Department entrance on Oak Avenue, and sign in with the security officer, who will give you a visitor sticker.Wi-Fi
Connect to the network named MGMC-Guest. No password is needed, but you must accept the terms on the welcome screen.Luis wants to visit his sister, a patient in the Maternity Unit. He is not one of her two support persons. He arrives at 8:30 p.m. Based on the guide, which conclusion is most accurate?
Correct answer: B
When a passage has several rules, scan for the one that matches every part of the situation: the unit, the type of visitor and the time. For the Maternity Unit, only the two support persons may come at any time; all other visitors may come from 1:00 p.m. to 7:00 p.m. Luis is not a support person and arrives at 8:30 p.m., so he is outside his visiting hours. The after-hours entrance explains how to get into the building, not who may visit.
- A The "any time" rule covers only the two support persons; this misses the condition that follows in the same sentence.
- B Correct: maternity visitors who are not support persons may come only from 1:00 p.m. to 7:00 p.m., and 8:30 p.m. is outside that window.
- C The After-Hours Entrance section explains how to enter the building at night, but it does not change the Maternity Unit's visiting hours.
- D Calling from the phone outside the unit doors is the rule for the ICU, not the Maternity Unit.
Learn this topic: How to find one specific detail in a text fast 5-minute lesson
Source: University of Tennessee at Chattanooga, Center for Academic Support and Advisement: Skimming and Scanning · Excelsior University Online Writing Lab, Reading Lab: Previewing ·
Reading the Label on a Can of Soup
A community health newsletter printed the Nutrition Facts label from a can of vegetable soup, along with a few tips based on FDA guidance.
Every amount on the label refers to one serving, not to the whole container. If you eat two servings, you get twice the calories, twice the amount of each nutrient and twice the % Daily Value (%DV). The serving size is a standard measured amount; it is not a recommendation of how much you should eat.
The %DV column shows how much of a day's reference amount of a nutrient one serving provides. As a quick guide, 5% DV or less of a nutrient per serving is considered low, and 20% DV or more is considered high. The FDA lists saturated fat, sodium and added sugars as nutrients to get less of, and dietary fiber, vitamin D, calcium, iron and potassium as nutrients to get more of.
Nutrition Facts: Servings per container: 2. Serving size: 1 cup (245 g). Calories per serving: 110.
Nutrient Amount per serving % Daily Value Total fat 2 g 3% Saturated fat 1 g 5% Trans fat 0 g — Cholesterol 0 mg 0% Sodium 690 mg 30% Total carbohydrate 18 g 7% Dietary fiber 4 g 14% Total sugars 4 g — Includes added sugars 1 g 2% Protein 5 g — Vitamin D 0 mcg 0% Calcium 30 mg 2% Iron 1.8 mg 10% Potassium 470 mg 10% Using the newsletter's guide to %DV, which nutrient is high in one serving of the soup?
Correct answer: C
To judge whether a nutrient is high or low, read the % Daily Value column, not the amount column. The newsletter's guide says 20% DV or more per serving is high and 5% DV or less is low. Only sodium, at 30% DV, reaches 20% or more.
- A Total carbohydrate has the largest gram amount on the label (18 g), but its %DV is only 7%; this comes from reading the amount column instead of the %DV column.
- B Dietary fiber is a nutrient to get more of, but 14% DV is below the 20% cutoff for high.
- C Correct: sodium provides 30% DV per serving, which is above the 20% cutoff for high.
- D Potassium provides 10% DV, which is neither low nor high by the guide.
Learn this topic: How to read charts, labels, maps and schedules 6-minute lesson
Source: FDA, How to Understand and Use the Nutrition Facts Label · Excelsior University Online Writing Lab, Annotating: How to Read Visual Aids ·
Reading the Label on a Can of Soup
A community health newsletter printed the Nutrition Facts label from a can of vegetable soup, along with a few tips based on FDA guidance.
Every amount on the label refers to one serving, not to the whole container. If you eat two servings, you get twice the calories, twice the amount of each nutrient and twice the % Daily Value (%DV). The serving size is a standard measured amount; it is not a recommendation of how much you should eat.
The %DV column shows how much of a day's reference amount of a nutrient one serving provides. As a quick guide, 5% DV or less of a nutrient per serving is considered low, and 20% DV or more is considered high. The FDA lists saturated fat, sodium and added sugars as nutrients to get less of, and dietary fiber, vitamin D, calcium, iron and potassium as nutrients to get more of.
Nutrition Facts: Servings per container: 2. Serving size: 1 cup (245 g). Calories per serving: 110.
Nutrient Amount per serving % Daily Value Total fat 2 g 3% Saturated fat 1 g 5% Trans fat 0 g — Cholesterol 0 mg 0% Sodium 690 mg 30% Total carbohydrate 18 g 7% Dietary fiber 4 g 14% Total sugars 4 g — Includes added sugars 1 g 2% Protein 5 g — Vitamin D 0 mcg 0% Calcium 30 mg 2% Iron 1.8 mg 10% Potassium 470 mg 10% Marisol eats the entire can of soup by herself. Based on the label and the newsletter, which of the following statements are accurate? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, B, D
Every amount on a Nutrition Facts label is for one serving, so check servings per container first. This can holds 2 servings, so eating the whole can doubles every amount: 110 × 2 = 220 calories, 30% × 2 = 60% DV sodium, and 1 g × 2 = 2 g saturated fat (5% × 2 = 10% DV). The serving size is a measured amount, not a recommendation.
- A Correct: 110 calories per serving × 2 servings = 220 calories.
- B Correct: 30% DV per serving × 2 servings = 60% DV for sodium.
- C 4 g is the fiber in one serving; for the whole can she gets 8 g, so this forgets to multiply.
- D Correct: 1 g × 2 = 2 g of saturated fat, and 5% × 2 = 10% DV.
- E The newsletter says the serving size is a standard measured amount, not a recommendation of how much to eat.
Learn this topic: How to read charts, labels, maps and schedules 6-minute lesson
Source: FDA, How to Understand and Use the Nutrition Facts Label · FDA, Daily Value on the Nutrition and Supplement Facts Labels ·
A Long First Shift
At 7:00 p.m., Andre Moreno clipped his new badge to his scrubs and walked onto the medical-surgical floor for his first night shift as a patient care technician. He felt calmer than he had expected. Three weeks earlier, he had finished a two-week orientation in which a senior technician, Ruth, had shown him how to take vital signs and restock supply carts. Before that orientation began, he had worried that he would never learn the layout of the floor.
The first few hours were quiet. After the evening report, Andre checked the supply carts, and then he helped Ruth reposition a patient who had just returned from surgery. Around midnight, a call light came on in Room 412. While Andre was answering it, the charge nurse asked him to bring a wheelchair to the elevator for a new admission. He finished helping the patient in Room 412 first and then delivered the wheelchair.
At 3:00 a.m., during his break, Andre wrote a note to himself listing the supply items he had restocked twice. Meanwhile, Ruth was recording vital signs at the other end of the hall. By the time the day shift arrived at 7:00 a.m., Andre had already completed his checklist. He left the building tired but proud, already looking forward to his next shift.
According to the passage, what did Andre do immediately after the evening report?
Correct answer: B
Signal words such as after, then and around midnight show the order of events. The passage says that after the evening report, Andre checked the supply carts, "and then" he helped Ruth reposition a patient. The call light came around midnight, and the note was written at 3:00 a.m.
- A "And then" shows that repositioning the patient came after checking the supply carts, so it was second, not immediately after the report.
- B Correct: the passage says that after the evening report, Andre checked the supply carts.
- C The call light came on around midnight, later in the shift.
- D Andre wrote the note during his 3:00 a.m. break, much later.
Learn this topic: How to put events in order when a text jumps around 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Transitional Devices ·
A Long First Shift
At 7:00 p.m., Andre Moreno clipped his new badge to his scrubs and walked onto the medical-surgical floor for his first night shift as a patient care technician. He felt calmer than he had expected. Three weeks earlier, he had finished a two-week orientation in which a senior technician, Ruth, had shown him how to take vital signs and restock supply carts. Before that orientation began, he had worried that he would never learn the layout of the floor.
The first few hours were quiet. After the evening report, Andre checked the supply carts, and then he helped Ruth reposition a patient who had just returned from surgery. Around midnight, a call light came on in Room 412. While Andre was answering it, the charge nurse asked him to bring a wheelchair to the elevator for a new admission. He finished helping the patient in Room 412 first and then delivered the wheelchair.
At 3:00 a.m., during his break, Andre wrote a note to himself listing the supply items he had restocked twice. Meanwhile, Ruth was recording vital signs at the other end of the hall. By the time the day shift arrived at 7:00 a.m., Andre had already completed his checklist. He left the building tired but proud, already looking forward to his next shift.
Put these events in the order in which they actually happened, from first to last.
- Andre clips his badge to his scrubs and starts his first night shift.
- Ruth shows Andre how to take vital signs.
- Andre answers the call light in Room 412.
- Andre delivers a wheelchair to the elevator.
- Andre worries that he will never learn the layout of the floor.
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: Andre worries that he will never learn the layout of the floor. → Ruth shows Andre how to take vital signs. → Andre clips his badge to his scrubs and starts his first night shift. → Andre answers the call light in Room 412. → Andre delivers a wheelchair to the elevator.
The passage opens with the start of the shift and then flashes back, so the order of the sentences is not the order of the events. Had + verb ("had worried," "had shown") marks earlier events, and "before that orientation began" places the worry first. The orientation came next, then the shift began; during the shift, Andre finished the Room 412 call before delivering the wheelchair.
- Andre clips his badge to his scrubs and starts his first night shift. Starting the shift is told first but happened third, after the worry and the orientation described in the flashback.
- Ruth shows Andre how to take vital signs. Ruth taught Andre during the orientation, which came after his worry and ended three weeks before the shift, so this is second.
- Andre answers the call light in Room 412. The call light came around midnight, during the shift, so this is fourth.
- Andre delivers a wheelchair to the elevator. The passage says he finished helping the patient in Room 412 first and then delivered the wheelchair, so this is last.
- Andre worries that he will never learn the layout of the floor. "Before that orientation began, he had worried" places the worry earliest, so this is first.
Learn this topic: How to put events in order when a text jumps around 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 4.5 Writing Process: Making the Personal Public · Purdue OWL, Verb Tense Consistency · Purdue OWL, Transitional Devices ·
A Long First Shift
At 7:00 p.m., Andre Moreno clipped his new badge to his scrubs and walked onto the medical-surgical floor for his first night shift as a patient care technician. He felt calmer than he had expected. Three weeks earlier, he had finished a two-week orientation in which a senior technician, Ruth, had shown him how to take vital signs and restock supply carts. Before that orientation began, he had worried that he would never learn the layout of the floor.
The first few hours were quiet. After the evening report, Andre checked the supply carts, and then he helped Ruth reposition a patient who had just returned from surgery. Around midnight, a call light came on in Room 412. While Andre was answering it, the charge nurse asked him to bring a wheelchair to the elevator for a new admission. He finished helping the patient in Room 412 first and then delivered the wheelchair.
At 3:00 a.m., during his break, Andre wrote a note to himself listing the supply items he had restocked twice. Meanwhile, Ruth was recording vital signs at the other end of the hall. By the time the day shift arrived at 7:00 a.m., Andre had already completed his checklist. He left the building tired but proud, already looking forward to his next shift.
Which statement about the order of events is supported by the passage?
Correct answer: A
In a story told in the past tense, had + a past participle marks an action completed before another past action. The note lists items Andre "had restocked twice," so the restocking came before he wrote the note at 3:00 a.m. Watch for "by the time" as well: Andre "had already completed" his checklist before the day shift arrived.
- A Correct: the note lists items he "had restocked," which shows the restocking happened before he wrote the note.
- B The charge nurse's request came while he was answering the call, but he finished Room 412 first and then delivered the wheelchair; this follows the order of mention, not the order of events.
- C He finished orientation three weeks earlier, not the week before the shift.
- D "By the time the day shift arrived ... Andre had already completed his checklist" means he finished before they arrived.
Learn this topic: How to put events in order when a text jumps around 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Verb Tense Consistency · Purdue OWL, Transitional Devices ·
Letter to the Editor: Parking Should Not Cost Patients
On March 1, Riverside General Hospital began charging $4 a day to park in its visitor garage. Before that date, parking was free. The hospital board approved the fee in a 5–2 vote at its February meeting. The garage has about 600 spaces.
I visited my father there for nine days last month, so I paid $36 just to sit by his bed. That is outrageous. The board quietly slipped through this greedy money grab while families were too busy caring for loved ones to notice. Hospital administrators never have to worry about money, so of course they did not think twice about who would pay.
According to the board's meeting notes, the fee will be used to repair the garage's elevators and lighting. That may sound reasonable, but repairs are no excuse for punishing people at the worst moments of their lives. A hospital should be a place of comfort, not a place that profits from visitors.
The board should cancel the fee immediately and find the repair money somewhere else. Every reader who has sat in a waiting room knows I am right.
Which of the following statements from the letter are facts rather than opinions? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C, E
A fact can be checked against evidence such as records, receipts, or meeting notes; an opinion is a judgment or recommendation that people could reasonably see differently. Judgment words such as "outrageous" and recommendation words such as "should" signal opinion. A sentence that reports what a document says is a fact, because a reader can check the document, even if the writer disagrees with it.
- A Fact: the start date and daily price can be checked against the hospital's posted rates or records.
- B Opinion: "outrageous" is the writer's judgment about the cost, not something that can be measured.
- C Fact: the vote count and meeting date can be checked in the board's official records.
- D Opinion: "should" introduces the writer's belief about what a hospital ought to be.
- E Fact: what the meeting notes say can be verified by reading them; the writer's reaction comes in the next sentence, which is the opinion.
Learn this topic: How to tell fact from opinion and spot bias 5-minute lesson
Source: Colorado State University Writing Guide, Distinguishing Fact, Opinion, Belief, and Prejudice · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 8.1 Information and Critical Thinking ·
Letter to the Editor: Parking Should Not Cost Patients
On March 1, Riverside General Hospital began charging $4 a day to park in its visitor garage. Before that date, parking was free. The hospital board approved the fee in a 5–2 vote at its February meeting. The garage has about 600 spaces.
I visited my father there for nine days last month, so I paid $36 just to sit by his bed. That is outrageous. The board quietly slipped through this greedy money grab while families were too busy caring for loved ones to notice. Hospital administrators never have to worry about money, so of course they did not think twice about who would pay.
According to the board's meeting notes, the fee will be used to repair the garage's elevators and lighting. That may sound reasonable, but repairs are no excuse for punishing people at the worst moments of their lives. A hospital should be a place of comfort, not a place that profits from visitors.
The board should cancel the fee immediately and find the repair money somewhere else. Every reader who has sat in a waiting room knows I am right.
The writer says, "The board quietly slipped through this greedy money grab while families were too busy caring for loved ones to notice." Which revision describes the same event in neutral, unbiased language?
Correct answer: D
Bias often shows up through loaded words, which carry strong emotion meant to sway the reader. Words such as "slipped through," "greedy," and "money grab" judge the board instead of simply naming what it did. A neutral revision keeps the checkable event (the vote, the date, the fee) and removes every judgment word.
- A "Shameful" is a loaded judgment word, so the sentence still shows the writer's bias.
- B "Unfairly targets" adds an opinion about the fee, so the sentence is not neutral.
- C It replaces one bias with a stereotype about all boards caring only about money.
- D Correct: it states only the verifiable event, with no judgment or emotional word choice.
Learn this topic: How to tell fact from opinion and spot bias 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 8.1 Information and Critical Thinking · Colorado State University Writing Guide, Distinguishing Fact, Opinion, Belief, and Prejudice ·
Letter to the Editor: Parking Should Not Cost Patients
On March 1, Riverside General Hospital began charging $4 a day to park in its visitor garage. Before that date, parking was free. The hospital board approved the fee in a 5–2 vote at its February meeting. The garage has about 600 spaces.
I visited my father there for nine days last month, so I paid $36 just to sit by his bed. That is outrageous. The board quietly slipped through this greedy money grab while families were too busy caring for loved ones to notice. Hospital administrators never have to worry about money, so of course they did not think twice about who would pay.
According to the board's meeting notes, the fee will be used to repair the garage's elevators and lighting. That may sound reasonable, but repairs are no excuse for punishing people at the worst moments of their lives. A hospital should be a place of comfort, not a place that profits from visitors.
The board should cancel the fee immediately and find the repair money somewhere else. Every reader who has sat in a waiting room knows I am right.
Which sentence from the letter relies on a stereotype?
Correct answer: B
A stereotype assumes that every member of a group shares the same trait. Words such as "never," "always," "all," or "every" attached to a group of people are a strong signal. A stereotype is a form of hasty generalization, because it draws a conclusion about a whole group from little or no evidence.
- A This is a checkable fact about the new parking fee, not a claim about a group of people.
- B Correct: it claims that all hospital administrators "never" worry about money, a trait assumed about an entire group without evidence.
- C This is an opinion about the fee, but it does not assign a trait to a group of people.
- D This is a recommendation (an opinion), not a generalization about a group.
Learn this topic: How to tell fact from opinion and spot bias 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Stereotypes and Biased Language · Purdue OWL, Logical Fallacies ·
Bring Back the Lunch Break
At 1:30 on a Tuesday, Marisol, a pharmacy technician, finally sat down to eat. She had been on her feet since seven, and her sandwich had been waiting in the break-room refrigerator for six hours. Before she could finish it, the phone rang, and she went back to the counter.
Stories like hers are common in our hospital. In last month's staff survey, 58 percent of pharmacy and nursing employees said they had skipped a meal break at least once in the past week. Many said they felt they could not leave their stations because no one was available to cover for them.
This should not be treated as a personal choice. Skipping breaks is a scheduling problem, and scheduling problems have scheduling solutions. Two departments in our hospital already use a "break buddy" system, in which pairs of coworkers cover for each other during a protected 30-minute meal period. In the same survey, far fewer employees in those departments reported missing a break.
Hospital leaders should adopt the break-buddy system in every department by the end of the year. A rested team is a more focused team, and patients benefit from that. Talk to your manager, sign the petition in the break room, and help make the lunch break a real break again.
What is the author's primary purpose in writing the passage?
Correct answer: C
The primary purpose must fit the whole passage, and the conclusion usually reveals it. Here the author states a position ("should not be treated as a personal choice"), tells hospital leaders what they "should" do, and ends with a call to action. The opening story and the survey numbers are tools that support that argument, so the purpose is to persuade.
- A The story of Marisol is only the opening hook; the passage goes on to argue for a policy change.
- B The survey is real support in the passage, but it is used as evidence for the argument rather than as the main point.
- C Correct: the "should" statements, the deadline, and the closing call to action show the author is arguing for the break-buddy system.
- D The break room is mentioned only in passing; the passage does not build a sensory picture of it.
Learn this topic: How to identify the author's purpose 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Purposes (Rhetorical Situation) · Purdue OWL, Argumentative Essays ·
Bring Back the Lunch Break
At 1:30 on a Tuesday, Marisol, a pharmacy technician, finally sat down to eat. She had been on her feet since seven, and her sandwich had been waiting in the break-room refrigerator for six hours. Before she could finish it, the phone rang, and she went back to the counter.
Stories like hers are common in our hospital. In last month's staff survey, 58 percent of pharmacy and nursing employees said they had skipped a meal break at least once in the past week. Many said they felt they could not leave their stations because no one was available to cover for them.
This should not be treated as a personal choice. Skipping breaks is a scheduling problem, and scheduling problems have scheduling solutions. Two departments in our hospital already use a "break buddy" system, in which pairs of coworkers cover for each other during a protected 30-minute meal period. In the same survey, far fewer employees in those departments reported missing a break.
Hospital leaders should adopt the break-buddy system in every department by the end of the year. A rested team is a more focused team, and patients benefit from that. Talk to your manager, sign the petition in the break room, and help make the lunch break a real break again.
Why does the author most likely begin the passage with the story of Marisol?
Correct answer: B
Writers of persuasive texts often open with a short story, an anecdote, so readers connect with the problem before they meet the claim and the evidence. When a question asks why a part of a passage is included, ask how that part serves the author's overall purpose. Here the story sets up the claim that skipped breaks are a common scheduling problem.
- A The author argues the opposite, that skipping breaks "should not be treated as a personal choice"; Marisol is called back to work by the phone.
- B Correct: the story gives a concrete example, and the next paragraph says "stories like hers are common," linking it directly to the argument.
- C The story never mentions the break-buddy system; the system is explained briefly later, in the third paragraph.
- D The topic does not change; the story introduces the same problem the rest of the passage argues about.
Learn this topic: How to identify the author's purpose 5-minute lesson
Source: Excelsior OWL, Narrative Argument · Purdue OWL, Narrative Essays ·
Requesting Time Off in the Scheduling Portal
All time-off requests for the Outpatient Department must be entered in the scheduling portal at least 14 days before the first day off. Requests sent by email or text message will not be processed.
Before you begin, check the department calendar to see whether the dates you want are marked as limited. No more than two staff members from the same unit may be off on the same day.
To submit a request:
- Log in to the portal and select My Schedule.
- Click Request Time Off in the upper-right corner.
- Choose the type of leave: vacation, personal, or unpaid.
- Enter the first and last dates you will be absent.
- Add a short note if your manager needs more information.
- Click Submit. A confirmation number will appear on the screen.
Your manager will approve or deny the request within three business days, and you will receive an email either way. If your request is denied, you may choose new dates and submit again.
Note: Requests for medical leave follow a separate process. Contact Human Resources at extension 4410 for those forms.
Which features show that the passage is a technical text? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: B, C, E
A technical text is written to help the reader complete a task. Its features include numbered steps in order, exact details and requirements, and labels or headings that match what the reader sees. Characters and conflict belong to narrative texts, while emotional language meant to change minds belongs to persuasive texts.
- A Characters and conflict are features of narrative texts; this passage has no story.
- B Correct: the six numbered steps walk the reader through the task in order.
- C Correct: exact numbers and rules, such as 14 days and two staff members per unit, are typical of technical writing.
- D The passage uses plain, neutral wording; emotional language aimed at changing opinions is a feature of persuasive texts.
- E Correct: the bold labels (My Schedule, Request Time Off, Submit) match what the reader sees on screen.
Learn this topic: How to identify the author's purpose 5-minute lesson
Source: LibreTexts, Online Technical Writing (McMurrey), 2.6 Instructions · Purdue OWL, Engineering Project Documentation: Stage Four, Manufacturing and Next Steps · Purdue OWL, Purposes (Rhetorical Situation) · Purdue OWL, Memos: Audience and Purpose ·
Handoff by Tablet: One Nurse's View
When our unit replaced paper handoff sheets with bedside tablets last spring, I was one of the loudest skeptics. I had spent eleven years scribbling notes on folded paper, and I worried that a screen would pull my eyes away from my patients. Six months later, I have changed my mind, though not completely.
The good news is real. Medication times, allergies, and pending lab results now appear in the same place for every nurse, so I no longer have to decode a colleague's handwriting at 7 a.m. Our manager reports that notes about missed tasks have dropped since the switch, and I believe it: I have not chased a lost sheet in months.
Still, the tablets are far from perfect. The battery on our oldest model dies halfway through a twelve-hour shift, and the login screen times out so quickly that I sometimes type my password four times in one room. Those seconds add up when a call light is flashing.
I would not go back to paper. But before the hospital buys tablets for every unit, leaders should spend a week on the night shift and watch how the devices actually behave. Nurses are willing to change; we simply want the tools to work as hard as we do.
From which point of view is the passage written?
Correct answer: C
Point of view starts with the pronouns the narrator uses. This narrator says "I," "our unit," and "we" and describes their own experience with the tablets, so the passage is in first person. Third-person narrators stand outside the events and use he, she, or they, and second person addresses the reader as "you."
- A The narrator never addresses the reader as "you"; the passage is about the narrator's own experience.
- B A third-person narrator would call the nurse "she" or "he"; this narrator says "I" and is the nurse.
- C Correct: "I," "our," and "we" show a narrator who is part of the events, which is first person.
- D The narrator shares only their own thoughts and says "I," so this is not an all-knowing outside narrator.
Learn this topic: How to find the author's point of view and tone 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 4.6 Editing Focus: More on Characterization and Point of View ·
Handoff by Tablet: One Nurse's View
When our unit replaced paper handoff sheets with bedside tablets last spring, I was one of the loudest skeptics. I had spent eleven years scribbling notes on folded paper, and I worried that a screen would pull my eyes away from my patients. Six months later, I have changed my mind, though not completely.
The good news is real. Medication times, allergies, and pending lab results now appear in the same place for every nurse, so I no longer have to decode a colleague's handwriting at 7 a.m. Our manager reports that notes about missed tasks have dropped since the switch, and I believe it: I have not chased a lost sheet in months.
Still, the tablets are far from perfect. The battery on our oldest model dies halfway through a twelve-hour shift, and the login screen times out so quickly that I sometimes type my password four times in one room. Those seconds add up when a call light is flashing.
I would not go back to paper. But before the hospital buys tablets for every unit, leaders should spend a week on the night shift and watch how the devices actually behave. Nurses are willing to change; we simply want the tools to work as hard as we do.
Which statement best describes the author's current attitude toward the bedside tablets?
Correct answer: B
To name an author's attitude, decide its direction and then its strength. This author says "I would not go back to paper" and lists real benefits, so the direction is favorable, but "though not completely," "Still, the tablets are far from perfect," and the call for leaders to test the devices show reservations. A mixed but mostly positive view is cautious support, not enthusiasm or hostility.
- A Too strong: the author spends a whole paragraph on battery and login problems, so they do not think every problem is solved.
- B Correct: the author would not return to paper but says the tablets are "far from perfect" and should be tested before wider use.
- C Too strong, and it echoes only the author's past doubts as "one of the loudest skeptics"; now the author says, "I would not go back to paper."
- D The author clearly takes a side, using judgment words such as "The good news is real" and "far from perfect."
Learn this topic: How to find the author's point of view and tone 5-minute lesson
Source: Utah Valley University Writing Center, Tone · Purdue OWL, Tone in Business Writing ·
Handoff by Tablet: One Nurse's View
When our unit replaced paper handoff sheets with bedside tablets last spring, I was one of the loudest skeptics. I had spent eleven years scribbling notes on folded paper, and I worried that a screen would pull my eyes away from my patients. Six months later, I have changed my mind, though not completely.
The good news is real. Medication times, allergies, and pending lab results now appear in the same place for every nurse, so I no longer have to decode a colleague's handwriting at 7 a.m. Our manager reports that notes about missed tasks have dropped since the switch, and I believe it: I have not chased a lost sheet in months.
Still, the tablets are far from perfect. The battery on our oldest model dies halfway through a twelve-hour shift, and the login screen times out so quickly that I sometimes type my password four times in one room. Those seconds add up when a call light is flashing.
I would not go back to paper. But before the hospital buys tablets for every unit, leaders should spend a week on the night shift and watch how the devices actually behave. Nurses are willing to change; we simply want the tools to work as hard as we do.
Which sentences from the passage show that the author still has reservations about the tablets? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C, E
Contrast signals such as though, still, and but often mark the point where a writer qualifies a positive view. Each keyed sentence either limits the author's support ("not completely"), names a weakness ("far from perfect"), or asks for testing before the change spreads. Sentences that only praise the tablets or reject paper show support, not reservations.
- A Correct: "though not completely" limits the author's change of mind, showing some doubt remains.
- B This sentence praises the tablets; it shows support, not a reservation.
- C Correct: "Still" signals a turn, and "far from perfect" names the author's concern.
- D This sentence shows the author now prefers the tablets to paper, which is support.
- E Correct: asking leaders to watch the devices before buying more shows the author is not fully convinced they work well.
Learn this topic: How to find the author's point of view and tone 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 11.3 Glance at Genre: Reasoning Strategies and Signal Words · Utah Valley University Writing Center, Tone · Purdue OWL, Transitional Devices ·
Small Moves in the Staff Cafeteria
Last fall, the wellness committee at Riverside Medical Center tried an experiment in the staff cafeteria. The committee did not change any prices or remove any foods. Instead, it moved bottled water into the cooler beside the cash registers, where sugary sodas had always been, and moved the sodas to a cooler at the back of the room. It also placed a basket of whole fruit at each register.
The cafeteria's sales records tell the story. In the three months before the change, water made up about 30 percent of bottled drinks sold; in the three months after, about 45 percent. Fruit sales nearly doubled, while sales of chips, which stayed on their usual rack, did not change.
Not everyone noticed the experiment. In a short survey, most staff members said they had not realized that anything had been moved. Several night-shift workers, however, complained that the back cooler is locked after 10 p.m., so they cannot buy soda at all during their breaks.
The committee plans to present the results to hospital leaders next month. Its members believe that where food is placed may influence choices as much as what it costs. They caution, however, that three months is a short time and that some of the change might fade once the new setup becomes familiar.
Which sentence from the passage best supports the claim that the new layout changed what staff members bought?
Correct answer: C
The best supporting evidence for a claim about buying is a measurement of buying. The sales figures compare water's share of drink sales before and after the change, which is direct proof that purchases shifted. Background details, survey answers about awareness, and the committee's own beliefs do not show what people bought.
- A This describes how the experiment was set up; it says nothing about whether purchases changed.
- B This is evidence about whether staff noticed the change, not about what they bought.
- C Correct: before-and-after sales numbers directly show that drink purchases shifted toward water.
- D This restates the committee's opinion, which is a claim, not evidence that proves it.
Learn this topic: How to use evidence from a passage to support, predict and conclude 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 10.3 Glance at Genre: Thesis, Reasoning, and Evidence · Purdue OWL, Toulmin Argument ·
Small Moves in the Staff Cafeteria
Last fall, the wellness committee at Riverside Medical Center tried an experiment in the staff cafeteria. The committee did not change any prices or remove any foods. Instead, it moved bottled water into the cooler beside the cash registers, where sugary sodas had always been, and moved the sodas to a cooler at the back of the room. It also placed a basket of whole fruit at each register.
The cafeteria's sales records tell the story. In the three months before the change, water made up about 30 percent of bottled drinks sold; in the three months after, about 45 percent. Fruit sales nearly doubled, while sales of chips, which stayed on their usual rack, did not change.
Not everyone noticed the experiment. In a short survey, most staff members said they had not realized that anything had been moved. Several night-shift workers, however, complained that the back cooler is locked after 10 p.m., so they cannot buy soda at all during their breaks.
The committee plans to present the results to hospital leaders next month. Its members believe that where food is placed may influence choices as much as what it costs. They caution, however, that three months is a short time and that some of the change might fade once the new setup becomes familiar.
Which conclusions are supported by evidence in the passage? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C, E
A supported conclusion must be backed by details actually in the passage. Fruit sales nearly doubled after the fruit baskets appeared, prices never changed while water and fruit sales shifted, and night-shift workers said the soda cooler is locked after 10 p.m. Conclusions that contradict a stated detail, such as the survey results or the unchanged chip sales, are not supported.
- A Correct: the passage says fruit was placed at each register and fruit sales nearly doubled.
- B The survey says most staff did not notice anything had moved, so this contradicts the passage.
- C Correct: the committee changed no prices, yet water's share of drink sales and fruit sales both rose.
- D The passage states that chip sales did not change, so this conclusion contradicts the evidence.
- E Correct: night-shift workers complained that the back cooler, where soda now sits, is locked after 10 p.m.
Learn this topic: How to use evidence from a passage to support, predict and conclude 5-minute lesson
Source: Kashyap and Dyquisto (City College of San Francisco), Reading and Composition, 4.5 Inferences · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 10.3 Glance at Genre: Thesis, Reasoning, and Evidence ·
Small Moves in the Staff Cafeteria
Last fall, the wellness committee at Riverside Medical Center tried an experiment in the staff cafeteria. The committee did not change any prices or remove any foods. Instead, it moved bottled water into the cooler beside the cash registers, where sugary sodas had always been, and moved the sodas to a cooler at the back of the room. It also placed a basket of whole fruit at each register.
The cafeteria's sales records tell the story. In the three months before the change, water made up about 30 percent of bottled drinks sold; in the three months after, about 45 percent. Fruit sales nearly doubled, while sales of chips, which stayed on their usual rack, did not change.
Not everyone noticed the experiment. In a short survey, most staff members said they had not realized that anything had been moved. Several night-shift workers, however, complained that the back cooler is locked after 10 p.m., so they cannot buy soda at all during their breaks.
The committee plans to present the results to hospital leaders next month. Its members believe that where food is placed may influence choices as much as what it costs. They caution, however, that three months is a short time and that some of the change might fade once the new setup becomes familiar.
Based on the passage, which outcome would the committee most likely expect if the cafeteria kept the new layout for another year?
Correct answer: B
A prediction should continue the pattern in the passage and keep the author's own limits. The committee believes placement influences choices, but it cautions that some of the change might fade once the setup becomes familiar. The answer that keeps both ideas, gains that last but may shrink, is the best-supported prediction.
- A Too big a leap: water rose from about 30 to 45 percent, and nothing suggests it would replace almost all other drinks.
- B Correct: the committee believes placement matters but warns that some of the change might fade over time.
- C Nothing in the passage links chip sales to the fruit baskets; chip sales did not change at all.
- D This ignores the committee's belief that placement influences choices; it warns only that some of the change might fade.
Learn this topic: How to use evidence from a passage to support, predict and conclude 5-minute lesson
Source: Kashyap and Dyquisto (City College of San Francisco), Reading and Composition, 4.5 Inferences · Purdue OWL, Toulmin Argument · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 11.3 Glance at Genre: Reasoning Strategies and Signal Words ·
Passage 1: From a clinic manager's newsletter column
Last March, our family clinic let staff choose four 10-hour shifts instead of five 8-hour shifts. Nine of our twelve medical assistants signed up. Since then, sick calls have dropped, and two people who had planned to leave told me they are staying. A full extra day off each week gives people time to rest, see their own doctors, and come back ready to work. I believe more clinics should offer this schedule.
Passage 2: From a letter by a medical assistant at the same clinic
I was glad to try the four-day schedule, and I do love my Fridays. But a 10-hour shift that starts at 7 a.m. means I leave home before my son's day care opens, so I pay a neighbor to cover the gap. By the last hour of a long day, I also notice that I am slower and less patient. The schedule works well for some of my coworkers, and I am grateful that it was optional. Any clinic that copies our plan should keep it a choice, not a requirement.
Which choice states a theme of Passage 1 rather than only its topic or a detail?
Correct answer: B
A topic names a subject in a word or phrase, while a theme is the idea the text develops about that subject, stated as a full sentence. Passage 1's details (fewer sick calls, staff staying, time to rest) all build toward the idea that extra days off make for healthier, steadier staff. A single fact is too narrow to be a theme, and an idea from the other passage does not describe Passage 1.
- A This is the topic: it names the subject but makes no point about it.
- B Correct: this full-sentence idea is what Passage 1's details about rest, sick calls, and staff staying all support.
- C This is a single supporting detail from Passage 1, too narrow to be its central message.
- D This idea comes from Passage 2, where the author describes leaving before day care opens.
Learn this topic: How to compare the themes and ideas of two texts 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Literary Terms ·
Passage 1: From a clinic manager's newsletter column
Last March, our family clinic let staff choose four 10-hour shifts instead of five 8-hour shifts. Nine of our twelve medical assistants signed up. Since then, sick calls have dropped, and two people who had planned to leave told me they are staying. A full extra day off each week gives people time to rest, see their own doctors, and come back ready to work. I believe more clinics should offer this schedule.
Passage 2: From a letter by a medical assistant at the same clinic
I was glad to try the four-day schedule, and I do love my Fridays. But a 10-hour shift that starts at 7 a.m. means I leave home before my son's day care opens, so I pay a neighbor to cover the gap. By the last hour of a long day, I also notice that I am slower and less patient. The schedule works well for some of my coworkers, and I am grateful that it was optional. Any clinic that copies our plan should keep it a choice, not a requirement.
With which statement would the authors of both passages most likely agree?
Correct answer: B
For a both-agree question, the answer must be supported by each passage separately. Passage 1 praises the extra day off, and the Passage 2 author says, "I do love my Fridays" and that the schedule "works well for some of my coworkers." Ideas that appear in only one passage, or that neither author supports, are wrong.
- A Only Passage 1 mentions workers who planned to leave; Passage 2 never discusses keeping staff.
- B Correct: Passage 1 praises the schedule, and Passage 2 says the author loves Fridays and the plan works well for some coworkers.
- C Only the Passage 2 author describes feeling slower late in a long shift; the manager in Passage 1 never raises this concern.
- D Neither author supports this: the manager let staff choose, and the medical assistant wants the schedule kept optional.
Learn this topic: How to compare the themes and ideas of two texts 5-minute lesson
Source: UNC Writing Center, Comparing and Contrasting · Purdue OWL, Synthesizing Sources ·
Passage 1: From a clinic manager's newsletter column
Last March, our family clinic let staff choose four 10-hour shifts instead of five 8-hour shifts. Nine of our twelve medical assistants signed up. Since then, sick calls have dropped, and two people who had planned to leave told me they are staying. A full extra day off each week gives people time to rest, see their own doctors, and come back ready to work. I believe more clinics should offer this schedule.
Passage 2: From a letter by a medical assistant at the same clinic
I was glad to try the four-day schedule, and I do love my Fridays. But a 10-hour shift that starts at 7 a.m. means I leave home before my son's day care opens, so I pay a neighbor to cover the gap. By the last hour of a long day, I also notice that I am slower and less patient. The schedule works well for some of my coworkers, and I am grateful that it was optional. Any clinic that copies our plan should keep it a choice, not a requirement.
Which statements describe ways that Passage 2 differs from Passage 1? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C, D
To contrast two texts, look for points where one passage says something the other does not, or where the authors view the same point differently. Passage 2 adds a cost (paying a neighbor before day care opens) and a concern (being slower and less patient late in the shift), and it comes from a worker's perspective rather than a manager's. Choices that misstate an author's position or give one passage's detail to the other are wrong.
- A Correct: the Passage 2 author pays a neighbor to cover the gap before day care opens, a cost Passage 1 never mentions.
- B The Passage 2 author would not go that far; they are "glad to try" the schedule and want it kept as a choice.
- C Correct: Passage 1 comes from the clinic manager, and Passage 2 from a medical assistant who works the schedule.
- D Correct: the Passage 2 author feels slower and less patient late in the day, and Passage 1 never mentions tiredness during shifts.
- E Swapped sides: the drop in sick calls is reported in Passage 1, not Passage 2.
Learn this topic: How to compare the themes and ideas of two texts 5-minute lesson
Source: UNC Writing Center, Comparing and Contrasting · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 1.1 Reading to Understand and Respond · Purdue OWL, Synthesizing Sources ·
Keep the Library Open Later
A letter to the editor of the Riverside Gazette
The Riverside Public Library closes at 6 p.m. on weekdays, and the city council should extend those hours to 9 p.m. Many residents work until 5 p.m. or later, so the current schedule leaves them almost no time to borrow books, use the computers, or attend programs.
The library's own records support this change. Last spring, the library stayed open until 9 p.m. on Thursdays for a six-week trial. According to the library's annual report, an average of 140 people visited after 6 p.m. on those evenings, and more than half of them used the public computers to apply for jobs or take online classes.
Later hours would also help students. The high school's study hall ends at 4 p.m., and some teenagers do not have reliable internet at home.
Some council members say the budget is too tight. However, my neighbor visited a library in another state that stays open until 10 p.m., and she said it was always busy, so extra hours clearly pay for themselves. And anyone who has watched a tired parent drive across town after work, only to find the library doors locked, knows how heartbreaking that moment is.
The choice is simple. Either the council extends the hours, or it admits that it does not care about working families.
Which reasoning flaw appears in the final paragraph of the letter?
Correct answer: C
An either/or argument (false dilemma) squeezes a decision into two choices when more exist. The council could, for example, extend hours on only some nights or test a later closing time again, so "extend the hours or admit you don't care" leaves out real options. Always match the flaw to the exact sentence the question points to, because one passage can contain several different flaws.
- A This describes overgeneralization, which appears in the neighbor sentence of the fourth paragraph, not in the final paragraph.
- B The final paragraph makes no claim that one event caused another; this is the false-cause flaw, which the letter does not use there.
- C Correct: the author offers only two choices, extend the hours or admit not caring, ignoring options such as extending hours on some nights.
- D The final paragraph does not use records at all, and the passage gives no sign that the trial data are outdated.
Learn this topic: How to judge whether an argument holds up 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Logical Fallacies · UNC Writing Center, Fallacies ·
Keep the Library Open Later
A letter to the editor of the Riverside Gazette
The Riverside Public Library closes at 6 p.m. on weekdays, and the city council should extend those hours to 9 p.m. Many residents work until 5 p.m. or later, so the current schedule leaves them almost no time to borrow books, use the computers, or attend programs.
The library's own records support this change. Last spring, the library stayed open until 9 p.m. on Thursdays for a six-week trial. According to the library's annual report, an average of 140 people visited after 6 p.m. on those evenings, and more than half of them used the public computers to apply for jobs or take online classes.
Later hours would also help students. The high school's study hall ends at 4 p.m., and some teenagers do not have reliable internet at home.
Some council members say the budget is too tight. However, my neighbor visited a library in another state that stays open until 10 p.m., and she said it was always busy, so extra hours clearly pay for themselves. And anyone who has watched a tired parent drive across town after work, only to find the library doors locked, knows how heartbreaking that moment is.
The choice is simple. Either the council extends the hours, or it admits that it does not care about working families.
Which of the following give relevant, checkable evidence for the author's claim that the library should stay open until 9 p.m.? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C
Strong evidence is both relevant (it makes the claim more likely to be true) and checkable (it comes from records, measurements or studies). The trial attendance and computer-use figures come from the library's annual report and show real demand after 6 p.m. A secondhand story about one library, an emotional scene, and a two-option ultimatum may persuade some readers, but none of them can be checked or shows that Riverside needs later hours.
- A Correct: this count comes from the library's annual report and directly shows demand for evening hours.
- B This is one person's secondhand impression of a different library, so it is an anecdote that cannot show what would happen in Riverside.
- C Correct: this figure from the same report shows that evening visitors used the library for needs such as job applications, which supports later hours.
- D This is an appeal to emotion; it describes a feeling, not a fact that can be checked.
- E This is an either/or statement that pressures the reader rather than evidence that supports the claim.
Learn this topic: How to judge whether an argument holds up 5-minute lesson
Source: UNC Writing Center, Evidence · UNC Writing Center, Fallacies · Purdue OWL, Using Rhetorical Strategies for Persuasion ·
Keep the Library Open Later
A letter to the editor of the Riverside Gazette
The Riverside Public Library closes at 6 p.m. on weekdays, and the city council should extend those hours to 9 p.m. Many residents work until 5 p.m. or later, so the current schedule leaves them almost no time to borrow books, use the computers, or attend programs.
The library's own records support this change. Last spring, the library stayed open until 9 p.m. on Thursdays for a six-week trial. According to the library's annual report, an average of 140 people visited after 6 p.m. on those evenings, and more than half of them used the public computers to apply for jobs or take online classes.
Later hours would also help students. The high school's study hall ends at 4 p.m., and some teenagers do not have reliable internet at home.
Some council members say the budget is too tight. However, my neighbor visited a library in another state that stays open until 10 p.m., and she said it was always busy, so extra hours clearly pay for themselves. And anyone who has watched a tired parent drive across town after work, only to find the library doors locked, knows how heartbreaking that moment is.
The choice is simple. Either the council extends the hours, or it admits that it does not care about working families.
Which additional information would most strengthen the author's response to the council members who say the budget is too tight?
Correct answer: D
The council's objection is about money, so the best support is checkable evidence that answers that exact objection. Actual cost figures compared with the available budget would directly show whether later hours are affordable. More stories, comparisons with distant libraries, or school schedule details may relate to the topic, but none of them addresses cost.
- A More stories add emotional weight and anecdotes, but they say nothing about whether the city can afford the extra hours.
- B Other libraries' hours show that late hours exist elsewhere, not that Riverside's budget can pay for them.
- C The study hall schedule relates to student need, not to cost, so it does not answer the budget concern.
- D Correct: real cost figures compared with available funds directly answer the budget objection with checkable evidence.
Learn this topic: How to judge whether an argument holds up 5-minute lesson
Source: UNC Writing Center, Argument · UNC Writing Center, Evidence ·
Quiet Hours at Lakeview Hospital
Priya, a nursing student, is writing a report on whether Lakeview Hospital's Quiet Hours program has made patient units quieter at night. Under the program, staff on participating units dim the hallway lights, lower phone ringer volume, and hold nonurgent conversations away from patient rooms between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. The program began on March 1 on Units 2 and 4 only. Units 1 and 3 kept their usual routines.
Priya has gathered three sources.
Source 1 is a report written by Lakeview's quality team. The team placed a sound meter in the hallway of each unit and recorded the average nighttime noise level in February, before the program began, and again in April. The table below comes from that report.
Unit Uses Quiet Hours? February average (decibels) April average (decibels) 1 No 54 53 2 Yes 56 47 3 No 52 52 4 Yes 55 48 Source 2 is a 2025 article in a nursing magazine. Its author, a nurse researcher, summarizes eleven published studies of hospital noise programs and lists them in a reference section.
Source 3 is an unsigned web page posted by a company that sells sleep masks and earplugs. It states that "hospital quiet programs never work" and that "the only real fix is our Silent Night kit." The page does not cite any studies or data.
Which of Priya's sources is a primary source for her question about Lakeview's units?
Correct answer: D
A primary source reports original work that its authors did themselves, such as their own measurements, experiments or interviews. A secondary source describes, summarizes or comments on work other people did. The quality team measured the noise on each unit, so its report is primary; the magazine article is secondary no matter how expert its author is.
- A Expertise affects credibility, not source type; the author summarizes other researchers' studies, so the article is secondary.
- B Summarizing other people's studies is exactly what makes a source secondary, not primary.
- C Coming from a company does not make a source primary; the page reports no original measurements at all.
- D Correct: the quality team recorded the noise data on Lakeview's units itself, so the report is original, firsthand work.
Learn this topic: How to combine a passage with a table, graph or second source 5-minute lesson
Source: University of Guelph Library, Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary Sources in the Sciences · UNC Writing Center, Evidence ·
Quiet Hours at Lakeview Hospital
Priya, a nursing student, is writing a report on whether Lakeview Hospital's Quiet Hours program has made patient units quieter at night. Under the program, staff on participating units dim the hallway lights, lower phone ringer volume, and hold nonurgent conversations away from patient rooms between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. The program began on March 1 on Units 2 and 4 only. Units 1 and 3 kept their usual routines.
Priya has gathered three sources.
Source 1 is a report written by Lakeview's quality team. The team placed a sound meter in the hallway of each unit and recorded the average nighttime noise level in February, before the program began, and again in April. The table below comes from that report.
Unit Uses Quiet Hours? February average (decibels) April average (decibels) 1 No 54 53 2 Yes 56 47 3 No 52 52 4 Yes 55 48 Source 2 is a 2025 article in a nursing magazine. Its author, a nurse researcher, summarizes eleven published studies of hospital noise programs and lists them in a reference section.
Source 3 is an unsigned web page posted by a company that sells sleep masks and earplugs. It states that "hospital quiet programs never work" and that "the only real fix is our Silent Night kit." The page does not cite any studies or data.
Based on both the description of the program and the table, which conclusion is best supported?
Correct answer: B
The text tells you which units used the program (Units 2 and 4); the table gives the numbers. Units 2 and 4 fell by 9 and 7 decibels, while Units 1 and 3 changed by 1 and 0 decibels. Combining the two sources through the shared term "unit" shows a much larger drop where the program was used.
- A The text says only Units 2 and 4 used the program, and Unit 3's level did not change at all, so this ignores both sources.
- B Correct: Units 2 and 4 dropped 9 and 7 decibels, while Units 1 and 3 dropped only 1 and 0 decibels.
- C In April, Unit 1 (53 decibels) was louder than Unit 3 (52 decibels); this comes from misreading the table.
- D Unit 4 fell by 7 decibels, but Unit 2 fell by 9, so Unit 2 had the largest drop; this comes from misreading the table.
Learn this topic: How to combine a passage with a table, graph or second source 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Synthesizing Sources · UNC Writing Center, Labeling Tables and Figures and Linking Them to the Text ·
Quiet Hours at Lakeview Hospital
Priya, a nursing student, is writing a report on whether Lakeview Hospital's Quiet Hours program has made patient units quieter at night. Under the program, staff on participating units dim the hallway lights, lower phone ringer volume, and hold nonurgent conversations away from patient rooms between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. The program began on March 1 on Units 2 and 4 only. Units 1 and 3 kept their usual routines.
Priya has gathered three sources.
Source 1 is a report written by Lakeview's quality team. The team placed a sound meter in the hallway of each unit and recorded the average nighttime noise level in February, before the program began, and again in April. The table below comes from that report.
Unit Uses Quiet Hours? February average (decibels) April average (decibels) 1 No 54 53 2 Yes 56 47 3 No 52 52 4 Yes 55 48 Source 2 is a 2025 article in a nursing magazine. Its author, a nurse researcher, summarizes eleven published studies of hospital noise programs and lists them in a reference section.
Source 3 is an unsigned web page posted by a company that sells sleep masks and earplugs. It states that "hospital quiet programs never work" and that "the only real fix is our Silent Night kit." The page does not cite any studies or data.
Which reasons explain why Source 3 is the least credible source for Priya's report? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, B, D
Credibility depends on who made a source, why they made it, and what evidence it offers. Source 3 has no named author, comes from a seller with a commercial reason to dismiss quiet programs, and backs its sweeping claims with no data. Format alone is not the problem: plenty of reliable sources are online, and a company's statements call for caution rather than automatic rejection.
- A Correct: a seller has a reason to promote its own product, which signals possible bias.
- B Correct: without a named author, a reader cannot check the writer's credentials or expertise.
- C Being online does not by itself make a source weak; many reliable sources are digital, so the author, purpose and evidence matter more than format.
- D Correct: claims such as "never work" with no studies or data behind them cannot be checked.
- E This overgeneralizes; a commercial source deserves extra scrutiny, but it is not automatically wrong.
Learn this topic: How to combine a passage with a table, graph or second source 5-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Evaluating Sources: General Guidelines · Purdue OWL, Evaluating Digital Sources · MedlinePlus, Evaluating Health Information ·
New Refill Process at Harbor View Clinic
Starting June 3, Harbor View Clinic will change the way patients request prescription refills. Until now, most requests came in by phone, and callers often waited on hold during the busy morning hours. The new process is meant to shorten those waits and give the clinic's nurses more time to review each request carefully.
Patients will now have three ways to ask for a refill. The fastest is the online patient portal, which accepts requests at any hour, every day of the week. Patients can also call the refill line, which will be staffed from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. Finally, patients may ask their pharmacy to send a request directly to the clinic. Requests left by voicemail after hours will no longer be accepted, because those messages were sometimes unclear or incomplete.
Most refill requests will be completed within two business days. However, some requests need a closer look. If a patient has not had an appointment at the clinic in the past twelve months, a nurse will contact the patient to schedule one before the refill is approved. Requests for controlled medicines must be made at least five business days before the patient runs out.
The clinic encourages patients to check each bottle's label to see how many refills remain and to ask for a new prescription when only one refill is left. Patients who are unsure how to use the portal can attend a free fifteen-minute training session in the clinic lobby every Tuesday at 10 a.m. Front-desk staff can also print a one-page guide.
Clinic leaders will review the new process in September. They plan to survey patients and measure how long requests take before deciding whether to keep, adjust, or replace it.
According to the passage, when will the clinic's refill line be staffed?
Correct answer: B
This is a detail question, so read the question first, pick the key words ("refill line"), and scan for them; they appear in the second paragraph. The passage lists several times, so match the time to the exact service the question names. The portal's hours and the training session's time are real details from the passage, but they answer different questions.
- A These are the hours of the online patient portal, not the refill line.
- B Correct: the second paragraph says the refill line will be staffed from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday.
- C The hours are right, but the passage limits the line to Monday through Friday; this choice blends two details.
- D This is the time of the free portal training session, a detail from the fourth paragraph.
Learn this topic: How to finish the TEAS reading section on time 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax College Success, 5.2 Effective Reading Strategies · ATI Help, What are the ATI TEAS sections and can I go back and answer a question? ·
New Refill Process at Harbor View Clinic
Starting June 3, Harbor View Clinic will change the way patients request prescription refills. Until now, most requests came in by phone, and callers often waited on hold during the busy morning hours. The new process is meant to shorten those waits and give the clinic's nurses more time to review each request carefully.
Patients will now have three ways to ask for a refill. The fastest is the online patient portal, which accepts requests at any hour, every day of the week. Patients can also call the refill line, which will be staffed from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. Finally, patients may ask their pharmacy to send a request directly to the clinic. Requests left by voicemail after hours will no longer be accepted, because those messages were sometimes unclear or incomplete.
Most refill requests will be completed within two business days. However, some requests need a closer look. If a patient has not had an appointment at the clinic in the past twelve months, a nurse will contact the patient to schedule one before the refill is approved. Requests for controlled medicines must be made at least five business days before the patient runs out.
The clinic encourages patients to check each bottle's label to see how many refills remain and to ask for a new prescription when only one refill is left. Patients who are unsure how to use the portal can attend a free fifteen-minute training session in the clinic lobby every Tuesday at 10 a.m. Front-desk staff can also print a one-page guide.
Clinic leaders will review the new process in September. They plan to survey patients and measure how long requests take before deciding whether to keep, adjust, or replace it.
Andre last had an appointment at Harbor View Clinic sixteen months ago. He needs a refill of a controlled medicine. According to the passage, which of the following apply to his request? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, B
The third paragraph holds both rules that fit Andre: more than twelve months since his last appointment means a nurse will call to schedule one, and a controlled medicine must be requested at least five business days ahead. The two-business-day time frame applies to most requests, and the word "however" signals that requests like Andre's are exceptions. When a question describes a person, list each fact about the person and find the rule that matches each one.
- A Correct: Andre's last appointment was more than twelve months ago, which triggers a nurse's call to schedule one before approval.
- B Correct: the passage says requests for controlled medicines must be made at least five business days before the patient runs out.
- C The passage says after-hours voicemail requests will no longer be accepted.
- D Two business days applies to most requests, but the passage says requests like Andre's need a closer look first.
- E The training session is optional for patients unsure about the portal; it is not a requirement for submitting a request.
Learn this topic: How to finish the TEAS reading section on time 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax College Success, 5.2 Effective Reading Strategies · OpenStax College Success Concise, 4.4 Test Taking ·
New Refill Process at Harbor View Clinic
Starting June 3, Harbor View Clinic will change the way patients request prescription refills. Until now, most requests came in by phone, and callers often waited on hold during the busy morning hours. The new process is meant to shorten those waits and give the clinic's nurses more time to review each request carefully.
Patients will now have three ways to ask for a refill. The fastest is the online patient portal, which accepts requests at any hour, every day of the week. Patients can also call the refill line, which will be staffed from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday. Finally, patients may ask their pharmacy to send a request directly to the clinic. Requests left by voicemail after hours will no longer be accepted, because those messages were sometimes unclear or incomplete.
Most refill requests will be completed within two business days. However, some requests need a closer look. If a patient has not had an appointment at the clinic in the past twelve months, a nurse will contact the patient to schedule one before the refill is approved. Requests for controlled medicines must be made at least five business days before the patient runs out.
The clinic encourages patients to check each bottle's label to see how many refills remain and to ask for a new prescription when only one refill is left. Patients who are unsure how to use the portal can attend a free fifteen-minute training session in the clinic lobby every Tuesday at 10 a.m. Front-desk staff can also print a one-page guide.
Clinic leaders will review the new process in September. They plan to survey patients and measure how long requests take before deciding whether to keep, adjust, or replace it.
On a Saturday night, Mei uses the online portal to request a refill of a medicine that is not a controlled medicine. Her last appointment at the clinic was eight months ago. Based on the passage, what should Mei most likely expect?
Correct answer: C
Check each fact about Mei against the rules in the passage. The portal accepts requests at any hour, her last visit was within twelve months, and her medicine is not controlled, so none of the exceptions apply and the general rule of two business days does. Answering this kind of question quickly depends on knowing where each rule sits, which is why labeling paragraphs as you read saves time.
- A The appointment rule applies only when the last visit was more than twelve months ago; Mei's was eight months ago.
- B Only after-hours voicemail requests are refused; the portal accepts requests at any hour, every day of the week.
- C Correct: no exception applies to Mei, so the general rule that most requests are completed within two business days fits.
- D The passage never says portal requests must be confirmed by phone; this adds a step the text does not state.
Learn this topic: How to finish the TEAS reading section on time 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax College Success, 5.2 Effective Reading Strategies · OpenStax College Success Concise, 4.4 Test Taking ·
A kitchen scale shows that a portion of cheese weighs 0.45 pound. Which fraction, in simplest form, is equal to 0.45?
Correct answer: C
The last digit of 0.45 is in the hundredths place, so 0.45 = 45/100. Simplify by dividing the top and bottom by the same number, 5: 45 ÷ 5 = 9 and 100 ÷ 5 = 20, giving 9/20. Check: 9 ÷ 20 = 0.45.
- A This divides the top by 5 but the bottom by 4; 9/25 = 0.36, not 0.45.
- B This uses thousandths (45/1,000) instead of hundredths; 9/200 = 0.045.
- C Correct: 0.45 = 45/100, and dividing top and bottom by 5 gives 9/20.
- D This uses tenths (45/10) instead of hundredths; 9/2 = 4.5, which is ten times too big.
Learn this topic: How to convert between fractions, decimals and percents 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.1 Decimals · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 4.2 Multiply and Divide Fractions ·
A home health aide completed 5 of the 6 visits scheduled for Monday. What percent of the scheduled visits did she complete? Round to the nearest tenth of a percent.
Correct answer: 83.3
Write the part over the whole: 5/6. Divide top by bottom: 5 ÷ 6 = 0.8333..., a repeating decimal. Move the decimal point two places right to get 83.333...%, then round once at the end to the nearest tenth: 83.3%. Rounding too early (for example to 0.8 or 0.83) gives 80% or 83%, which is not to the nearest tenth.
Learn this topic: How to convert between fractions, decimals and percents 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.3 Decimals and Fractions · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 6.1 Understand Percent ·
A cleaning concentrate is mixed with water so that the solution is 0.4% concentrate. Which of the following are equal to 0.4%? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: B, D, E
To change a percent to a decimal, drop the % sign and move the decimal point two places left: 0.4% = 0.004. The 4 is in the thousandths place, so 0.004 = 4/1,000, and dividing top and bottom by 4 gives 1/250. A percent below 1% is always a decimal below 0.01.
- A This moves the decimal point only one place left; 0.04 is 4%, ten times too big.
- B Correct: 0.4% = 0.004, which is 4 thousandths, or 4/1,000.
- C This treats 0.4% as the decimal 0.4 (= 2/5 = 40%), forgetting to divide by 100.
- D Correct: 4/1,000 simplifies to 1/250 by dividing top and bottom by 4.
- E Correct: dropping the % sign and moving the point two places left gives 0.004.
Learn this topic: How to convert between fractions, decimals and percents 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 6.1 Understand Percent · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.1 Decimals ·
The temperature in a mountain town was −7°F at 6 a.m. and 12°F at noon. By how many degrees did the temperature rise?
Correct answer: A
The rise is the later temperature minus the earlier one: 12 − (−7). Subtracting a negative is the same as adding its opposite, so 12 − (−7) = 12 + 7 = 19. On a thermometer, it is 7 degrees from −7 up to 0 and 12 more degrees up to 12, for 19 degrees in all.
- A Correct: 12 − (−7) = 12 + 7 = 19 degrees.
- B This subtracts in the wrong order, −7 − 12, which describes a drop rather than a rise.
- C This computes 12 − 7, treating −7 as if it were positive 7.
- D This computes −12 + 7, putting the negative sign on the wrong temperature; a rise is never negative.
Learn this topic: How to add, subtract, multiply and divide fractions, decimals and negatives 7-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 1.3 Add and Subtract Integers ·
A soup recipe uses 1 2/3 cups of broth. Keiko wants to make 1 1/2 times the recipe. How many cups of broth does she need? Enter your answer as a decimal.
Correct answer: 2.5
Change both mixed numbers to improper fractions: 1 2/3 = 5/3 and 1 1/2 = 3/2. Multiply tops and bottoms: 5/3 × 3/2 = 15/6, which simplifies to 5/2 = 2 1/2, or 2.5 cups. Multiplying the parts separately (1 × 1 plus 2/3 × 1/2) gives only 1 1/3, because it leaves out the cross pieces of the product.
Learn this topic: How to add, subtract, multiply and divide fractions, decimals and negatives 7-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 4.3 Multiply and Divide Mixed Numbers and Complex Fractions · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 4.1 Visualize Fractions ·
Simplify: −3² + 4(2 − 5) ÷ 6
Correct answer: B
Work inside the parentheses first: 2 − 5 = −3. Next the exponent: −3² means the opposite of 3², which is −9 (only the 3 is squared). Then multiply and divide left to right: 4 × (−3) = −12 and −12 ÷ 6 = −2. Finally add: −9 + (−2) = −11.
- A This squares the negative sign too (treating −3² as 9), giving 9 + (−2) = 7.
- B Correct: −9 + (4 × (−3)) ÷ 6 = −9 + (−2) = −11.
- C This works straight left to right, adding −9 + 4 before multiplying, which breaks the order of operations.
- D This makes a sign error, treating 4 × (−3) as +12, so −9 + 2 = −7.
Learn this topic: How to add, subtract, multiply and divide fractions, decimals and negatives 7-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 1.4 Multiply and Divide Integers · OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 1.2 Use the Language of Algebra ·
Rain gauges at four weather stations recorded 0.09 inch, 0.1 inch, 0.089 inch and 0.099 inch of rain on the same day. Which amount is the greatest?
Correct answer: A
Give every decimal the same number of places by adding zeros at the end: 0.090, 0.100, 0.089 and 0.099. Now compare them like whole numbers: 100 is greater than 99, 90 and 89. So 0.1 inch is the greatest, even though it has the fewest digits.
- A Correct: written as 0.100, it is greater than 0.099, 0.090 and 0.089.
- B 0.089 is the smallest amount; it may look big because it has three digits after the point.
- C 0.099 has more digits and several 9s, but as 0.099 vs 0.100 it is smaller than 0.1.
- D 0.09 is the same as 0.090, which is less than 0.100 and 0.099.
Learn this topic: How to compare and order fractions, decimals, percents and negatives 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.1 Decimals ·
Eli tracks his body weight and records the change each week in pounds: week 1, −1 1/4; week 2, −0.8; week 3, 3/4; week 4, −1.3. Which list shows the changes from least to greatest?
Correct answer: B
Convert to decimals: −1 1/4 = −1.25 and 3/4 = 0.75. On a number line, the negative farthest from zero is the smallest, so the order is −1.3, −1.25, −0.8, then the only positive value, 0.75. Remember that −1.3 is less than −1.25 because it is farther to the left.
- A This reads 1 1/4 as 1.4 instead of 1.25, so it places −1 1/4 before −1.3.
- B Correct: −1.3 < −1.25 < −0.8 < 0.75.
- C This orders the values by distance from zero, ignoring the negative signs.
- D This orders the negatives as if they were positive (0.8, 1.25, 1.3), but for negatives the larger size is the smaller number.
Learn this topic: How to compare and order fractions, decimals, percents and negatives 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.3 Decimals and Fractions · OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 1.3 Add and Subtract Integers ·
A cafeteria's serving guideline says soup bowls should be filled more than 2/3 full but no more than 3/4 full. Which fill level follows the guideline?
Correct answer: D
Write the guideline as 2/3 < fill ≤ 3/4, then turn everything into decimals: 2/3 ≈ 0.667 and 3/4 = 0.75. The choices are 0.65, 7/9 ≈ 0.778, 80% = 0.8 and 5/7 ≈ 0.714. Only 0.714 is above 0.667 and not above 0.75, so 5/7 full follows the guideline.
- A 0.65 is just under 2/3 (about 0.667), so the bowl is not filled enough; rounding 2/3 to 0.6 makes this look correct.
- B 7/9 is about 0.778, which is more than 3/4 (0.75).
- C 80% is 0.8, which is more than 3/4 (0.75).
- D Correct: 5/7 ≈ 0.714, which is greater than 2/3 ≈ 0.667 and no more than 0.75.
Learn this topic: How to compare and order fractions, decimals, percents and negatives 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.3 Decimals and Fractions · OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 1.2 Use the Language of Algebra ·
Marcus orders 38 boxes of exam-table paper for a clinic at $21.40 per box. His calculator shows a total of $8,132.00. If he checks it with front-end rounding (rounding each number to its leading place), about what should the total be?
Correct answer: C
Front-end rounding rounds each number to its leading place: 38 rounds to 40 and $21.40 rounds to $20, so the total should be about 40 × 20 = $800. The calculator's $8,132.00 is about 10 times too large, which points to a decimal slip; the exact total is 38 × 21.40 = $813.20. Always compare a calculator result with a quick estimate before choosing an answer.
- A This matches the incorrect calculator result instead of checking it; it is 10 times the estimate.
- B This chops 38 down to 30 instead of rounding it; the digit to the right of the 3 is 8, so 38 rounds up to 40.
- C Correct: 40 × $20 = $800, close to the exact total of $813.20.
- D This drops a zero; 40 × 20 is 800, not 80.
Learn this topic: How to round and estimate without going blank 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax University Physics Volume 1, 1.5 Estimates and Fermi Calculations · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 1.1 Introduction to Whole Numbers · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.2 Decimal Operations ·
Jamal is buying 18 pounds of apples at $2.49 per pound for a school health fair. He rounds the price to $2 before multiplying to estimate the cost. Which statements are true? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, B, C
Rounding before multiplying lets the rounding error get multiplied too: cutting 49 cents from each of 18 pounds makes the estimate 18 × 0.49 = $8.82 too low. The estimate is 18 × 2 = $36, the exact cost is 18 × 2.49 = $44.82, and 44.82 − 36 = 8.82. Rounding to a closer value ($2.50) gives 18 × 2.50 = $45.00, which is 18 cents high, because even a 1-cent rounding gets multiplied by 18.
- A True: 18 × $2 = $36.
- B True: 18 × 2.49 = 44.82, so the exact cost is $44.82.
- C True: $44.82 − $36.00 = $8.82, the 49-cent rounding multiplied by 18 pounds.
- D False: 18 × 2.50 = $45.00 is $0.18 above $44.82; the 1-cent rounding is multiplied by 18 pounds, so it is not within 10 cents.
- E False: rounding the price down makes every pound cheaper, so the estimate ($36) is lower than the exact cost, not higher.
Learn this topic: How to round and estimate without going blank 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.2 Decimal Operations · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.1 Decimals ·
A cleaning solution is made with 12 g of powder in 400 mL of water. A lab aide wants to find x, the grams of powder needed for 300 mL of the same solution. Which proportions are set up correctly? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, B, C
A proportion is set up correctly when the units line up in the same positions on both sides. Grams over mL on both sides (a), mL over grams on both sides (b), or grams over grams equal to mL over mL in the same order (c) all give x = 9 g. Setups that put one side upside down give wrong answers.
- A Correct: grams/mL on both sides; 400x = 3,600, so x = 9.
- B Correct: mL/grams on both sides; 400x = 3,600, so x = 9.
- C Correct: grams/grams equals mL/mL in the same order (400 mL goes with 12 g); 400x = 3,600, so x = 9.
- D Incorrect: the left side is grams/mL but the right side is mL/grams, giving x = 10,000.
- E Incorrect: the order is mismatched (x goes with 300 mL but sits over 12 g, which goes with 400 mL), giving x = 16.
Learn this topic: How to set up and solve a proportion 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 6.5 Solve Proportions and their Applications · OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 8.7 Solve Proportion and Similar Figure Applications ·
On a regional map, 1 inch represents 25 miles. Two clinics are 3.5 inches apart on the map. How many miles apart are the clinics?
Correct answer: 87.5
Set up a proportion with map inches on top and real miles on the bottom: 1/25 = 3.5/x. Cross-multiplying gives 1 × x = 25 × 3.5, so x = 87.5 miles. A quick check: 3.5 inches is a bit more than 3 inches, and 3 × 25 = 75, so an answer a little above 75 makes sense.
Learn this topic: How to set up and solve a proportion 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 8.7 Solve Proportion and Similar Figure Applications · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 6.5 Solve Proportions and their Applications ·
A dosage chart lists 7.5 mg of a medication per kilogram of body weight. How many milligrams correspond to a patient who weighs 132 lb? (Use 1 kg ≈ 2.2 lb.)
Correct answer: B
A per-kilogram rate needs the weight in kilograms, so convert first: 132 ÷ 2.2 = 60 kg. Then set up the proportion 7.5 mg / 1 kg = x mg / 60 kg, so x = 7.5 × 60 = 450 mg. Remember that the number of kilograms is always smaller than the number of pounds.
- A This skips the conversion and multiplies 7.5 by 132 lb.
- B Correct: 132 ÷ 2.2 = 60 kg, and 7.5 × 60 = 450 mg.
- C This divides the weight by the rate (60 ÷ 7.5) instead of multiplying.
- D This multiplies 132 by 2.2 (290.4 kg) instead of dividing, then multiplies by 7.5.
Learn this topic: How to set up and solve a proportion 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 6.5 Solve Proportions and their Applications · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 7.5 Systems of Measurement · NIST Guide to the SI, Appendix B.9: Factors for units listed by kind of quantity ·
A nursing study group has 14 first-year students and 21 second-year students. What is the ratio of first-year students to second-year students in simplest form?
Correct answer: C
Write the ratio in the order named, first-year to second-year: 14:21, or 14/21. Both numbers divide by their greatest common factor, 7, giving 2:3. Watch the order and make sure you compare the two groups, not one group to the total.
- A This reverses the order, giving second-year to first-year (21:14).
- B This compares first-year students to the whole group (14:35), a part-to-whole ratio.
- C Correct: 14:21 divided by 7 is 2:3.
- D This compares second-year students to the whole group (21:35).
Learn this topic: How to work with ratios, unit rates and rate of change 5-minute lesson
During a cardiac rehab walking program, Priya walks 2.4 miles in 45 minutes. What is her average speed in miles per hour? Round to the nearest tenth if needed.
Correct answer: 3.2
Miles per hour needs the time in hours, so convert first: 45 ÷ 60 = 0.75 hour. Then divide distance by time: 2.4 ÷ 0.75 = 3.2 miles per hour. Check with distance = rate × time: 3.2 × 0.75 = 2.4 miles.
Learn this topic: How to work with ratios, unit rates and rate of change 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 3.5 Solve Uniform Motion Applications · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.6 Ratios and Rate ·
Day Hand sanitizer left in dispenser (mL) 1 1,200 3 960 5 720 A clinic records how much hand sanitizer is left in a wall dispenser. If the amount keeps decreasing at the same rate, on which day will the dispenser be empty?
Correct answer: D
Rate of change is the change in amount divided by the change in time: (960 − 1,200) ÷ (3 − 1) = −240 ÷ 2 = −120 mL per day. On day 5 there are 720 mL left, and 720 ÷ 120 = 6 more days, so it is empty on day 5 + 6 = day 11. Check from the start: 1,200 ÷ 120 = 10 days after day 1, which is also day 11.
- A This finds 720 ÷ 120 = 6 but forgets to count the 6 days from day 5.
- B This treats the 240 mL drop between table rows as a one-day drop (720 ÷ 240 = 3 days after day 5), but the rows are 2 days apart.
- C This finds 1,200 ÷ 120 = 10 days but counts from day 0 instead of day 1.
- D Correct: the rate is −120 mL per day, and 720 mL lasts 6 more days after day 5.
Learn this topic: How to work with ratios, unit rates and rate of change 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax College Algebra 2e, 3.3 Rates of Change and Behavior of Graphs · OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 4.4 Understand Slope of a Line ·
A sign at a hospital parking garage says that a vehicle's height can be no more than 7 feet. Which inequality shows the allowed heights, h, in feet?
Correct answer: C
"No more than 7" means the height can be 7 feet or anything below it, so the boundary 7 is allowed and the sign is ≤: h ≤ 7. "At most" and "no more than" both mean ≤; "at least" and "no less than" both mean ≥. If the boundary number itself is allowed, the inequality needs the "or equal to" line.
- A This leaves out 7 itself, but a vehicle exactly 7 feet tall is allowed, so the sign needs the "or equal to" part.
- B This reverses the meaning: ≥ is "at least 7," which would allow only vehicles 7 feet or taller.
- C Correct: "no more than 7" means 7 or less, which is h ≤ 7.
- D This both reverses the direction and leaves out 7; it describes vehicles taller than the limit.
Learn this topic: How to turn words into expressions, equations and inequalities 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 2.7 Solve Linear Inequalities ·
Imani, a phlebotomy student, completed 6 less than twice the number of blood draws her classmate Luis completed. Imani completed 34 draws. Which equation can be used to find c, the number of draws Luis completed?
Correct answer: D
"Twice the number Luis completed" is 2c, and "6 less than" that amount means subtract 6 from it: 2c − 6. Imani's total is 34, so 2c − 6 = 34, which gives 2c = 40 and c = 20. "Less than" flips the order, so the 6 is subtracted from 2c, not the other way around.
- A This keeps the words in reading order; "6 less than 2c" means 2c − 6, not 6 − 2c.
- B This subtracts 6 before doubling; the words say to double first and then take away 6, so no parentheses are needed.
- C This adds 6 instead of subtracting it; "less than" means subtraction.
- D Correct: twice Luis's draws is 2c, and 6 less than that is 2c − 6, which equals 34.
Learn this topic: How to turn words into expressions, equations and inequalities 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 2.2 Evaluate, Simplify, and Translate Expressions · OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 3.1 Use a Problem-Solving Strategy ·
A medical supply website charges a flat $8 shipping fee per order plus $3.50 for each box of exam gloves. Paolo can spend at most $45 on one order, including shipping. What is the greatest whole number of boxes of gloves he can order?
Correct answer: 10
Let b be the number of boxes. The order cost is 3.50b + 8, and "at most $45" means 3.50b + 8 ≤ 45. Subtract 8 to get 3.50b ≤ 37, then divide by 3.50 to get b ≤ 10.57 (rounded). He cannot buy part of a box, and 11 boxes would cost 3.50 × 11 + 8 = $46.50, which is over budget, so the greatest number is 10 boxes ($43). Common errors are rounding up to 11, ignoring the shipping fee (45 ÷ 3.50 ≈ 12.9), or adding the fee instead of subtracting it.
Learn this topic: How to turn words into expressions, equations and inequalities 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 2.7 Solve Linear Inequalities · OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 3.1 Use a Problem-Solving Strategy ·
Appointments at a physical therapy clinic during one week
Day In-person Telehealth Monday 32 9 Tuesday 24 18 Wednesday 37 6 Thursday 27 12 Friday 25 16 According to the table, on which day did the clinic have the fewest in-person appointments?
Correct answer: A
Use only the In-person column and look for the smallest number: 32, 24, 37, 27, 25. The smallest is 24, on Tuesday. Before answering a table question, check the column heading the question names; the Telehealth column and the daily totals give different answers.
- A Correct: Tuesday's 24 is the smallest value in the In-person column.
- B Wednesday has the fewest telehealth appointments (6); this reads the wrong column. Wednesday actually has the most in-person appointments.
- C Thursday has the fewest total appointments (27 + 12 = 39), but the question asks about in-person appointments only.
- D Friday's 25 is close, but Tuesday's 24 is smaller; this comes from not comparing every row.
Learn this topic: How to read tables, bar graphs, line graphs and pie charts 6-minute lesson
A hospital cafeteria asked 480 employees to name their favorite lunch option. A pie chart showed these results:
Lunch option Percent of employees Sandwiches 35% Salad bar 25% Hot entrée 20% Soup 15% Other 5% Based on the pie chart, how many more employees chose sandwiches than soup?
Correct answer: 96
A pie chart shows parts of one whole, here 480 employees. Sandwiches got 35% and soup got 15%, a difference of 20 percentage points. Then 20% of 480 is 0.20 × 480 = 96 employees. You can also find each count first: 0.35 × 480 = 168 and 0.15 × 480 = 72, and 168 − 72 = 96.
Learn this topic: How to read tables, bar graphs, line graphs and pie charts 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 1.2 Data, Sampling, and Variation in Data and Sampling · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 6.2 Solve General Applications of Percent ·
A line graph shows the average number of steps per day recorded by a hospital staff walking group over 6 weeks. The plotted points are listed below.
Week Average steps per day 1 4,200 2 4,900 3 4,600 4 5,800 5 6,300 6 8,500 Which statements are supported by the graph? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: B, C, D
Find the change between each pair of neighboring weeks: +700, −300, +1,200, +500 and +2,200. The biggest increase, +2,200, is from week 5 to week 6, and the only drop is the 300-step dip from week 2 to week 3. Double the week 1 value is 2 × 4,200 = 8,400, and week 6 (8,500) is higher than that. Week 6 minus week 4 is 8,500 − 5,800 = 2,700, not 4,300.
- A Incorrect: the average fell from 4,900 in week 2 to 4,600 in week 3.
- B Correct: the week 5 to week 6 change (+2,200) is larger than any other weekly change.
- C Correct: 2 × 4,200 = 8,400, and 8,500 is more than that.
- D Correct: 4,900 − 4,600 = 300.
- E Incorrect: 4,300 is the difference between week 6 and week 1; the difference from week 4 is 8,500 − 5,800 = 2,700.
Learn this topic: How to read tables, bar graphs, line graphs and pie charts 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 2.2 Histograms, Frequency Polygons, and Time Series Graphs · OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 2.1 Stem-and-Leaf Graphs (Stemplots), Line Graphs, and Bar Graphs ·
A phlebotomist recorded the number of blood draws she completed on each of seven shifts: 14, 9, 22, 17, 9, 19, 12. What is the range of the data?
Correct answer: B
The range is the largest value minus the smallest value. Here the largest is 22 and the smallest is 9, so the range is 22 − 9 = 13 draws. The range measures how spread out the data are, not where the center is.
- A This is the median (the middle of the ordered list 9, 9, 12, 14, 17, 19, 22), not the range.
- B Correct: 22 − 9 = 13.
- C This is the mode, the value that appears most often, and also the smallest value.
- D This is the largest value alone; the range subtracts the smallest value from it.
Learn this topic: How to find the mean, median, mode and range 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 2.4 Box Plots · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.5 Averages and Probability ·
The mean age of the 5 members of a support group is 42 years. A sixth member joins, and the mean age of all 6 members becomes 45 years. How old, in years, is the new member?
Correct answer: 60
Use total = mean × number of values. Before: 5 × 42 = 210 years in total. After: 6 × 45 = 270 years in total. The new member accounts for the difference: 270 − 210 = 60 years. A common mistake is to subtract the means (45 − 42 = 3) or to average them; work with totals instead.
Learn this topic: How to find the mean, median, mode and range 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 2.5 Measures of the Center of the Data · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 5.5 Averages and Probability ·
A clinic recorded the number of missed appointments each day for 7 days: 3, 5, 4, 6, 2, 5, 40. The value 40 was a typing error; the correct value is 7. How does correcting the error change the mean and the median?
Correct answer: D
The original total is 65, so the mean is 65 ÷ 7 ≈ 9.3; after the fix the total is 32, so the mean is 32 ÷ 7 ≈ 4.6, a drop of 33 ÷ 7 ≈ 4.7. In order, the original data are 2, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 40 and the corrected data are 2, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 7; the middle (4th) value is 5 both times. An extreme value pulls the mean toward it but does not affect the median as long as it stays on the same side of the middle.
- A This subtracts the full change in one value (40 − 7 = 33) from the mean without dividing it among the 7 values.
- B This assumes the median moves as much as the mean; the median depends only on the middle value, which stays 5.
- C This reverses the roles: the outlier strongly affects the mean, not the median.
- D Correct: the mean falls from about 9.3 to about 4.6 (33 ÷ 7 ≈ 4.7), and the median is 5 before and after.
Learn this topic: How to find the mean, median, mode and range 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 2.5 Measures of the Center of the Data · OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 2.6 Skewness and the Mean, Median, and Mode ·
A home health agency pays its aides $22 for each home visit. An aide's weekly pay, P, is found with the equation P = 22v, where v is the number of visits made that week. Which statement correctly describes the variables?
Correct answer: B
The independent variable is the input, and the dependent variable is the result that responds to it. Pay depends on how many visits the aide makes, so the number of visits, v, is independent and the pay, P, is dependent. In an equation written as y = kx, x is the independent variable and y is the dependent one; the fixed number 22 is a constant, not a variable.
- A This reverses the roles; the number of visits drives the pay, not the other way around.
- B Correct: pay depends on the number of visits, so v is independent and P is dependent.
- C 22 is a fixed rate (the constant of variation), so it is not a variable at all.
- D P changes in response to v, so P depends on v and cannot be independent.
Learn this topic: How two variables are related: correlation, direct and inverse variation 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 12.1 Linear Equations · OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 8.9 Use Direct and Inverse Variation ·
Volunteers are packing first-aid kits for a health fair. The time needed to pack all the kits varies inversely with the number of volunteers. If 4 volunteers can pack all the kits in 6 hours, how many hours would it take 3 volunteers working at the same rate? Enter a whole number.
Correct answer: 8
Inverse variation means t = k/n, so the product of volunteers and hours stays the same. From 6 = k/4, the constant is k = 4 × 6 = 24 volunteer-hours of work. With 3 volunteers, t = 24 ÷ 3 = 8 hours. A common mistake is to set up a regular proportion (4/6 = 3/t), which gives 4.5 hours; fewer volunteers must take longer, not less time.
Learn this topic: How two variables are related: correlation, direct and inverse variation 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 8.9 Use Direct and Inverse Variation ·
Weeks of study and practice test scores for eight students in a prep course
Student Weeks of study Practice test score (%) A 1 58 B 2 62 C 3 61 D 4 70 E 5 74 F 6 79 G 7 77 H 8 86 The data in the table will be shown on a scatter plot. Which statements are supported by the data? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, D
Reading from 1 week to 8 weeks, scores generally rise (with small dips at students C and G), so the dots trend upward: a positive correlation. The score responds to the weeks of study, so weeks is the independent variable and goes on the horizontal x-axis. A correlation alone cannot prove cause and effect, and direct variation would need score ÷ weeks to be constant, which it is not (58 ÷ 1 = 58 but 62 ÷ 2 = 31).
- A Correct: higher weeks of study are paired with higher scores overall, so the trend rises from left to right.
- B This reverses the direction; scores tend to go up, not down, as weeks increase.
- C Correlation does not imply causation; other factors could explain why students who studied longer scored higher.
- D Correct: the score is the response, so weeks of study is the independent variable and is plotted on the x-axis.
- E The ratio is not constant (58, 31, about 20.3, 17.5 ...), so this is not direct variation even though the trend is positive.
Learn this topic: How two variables are related: correlation, direct and inverse variation 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 12.2 Scatter Plots · OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 12.3 The Regression Equation · OpenStax Elementary Algebra 2e, 8.9 Use Direct and Inverse Variation ·
A round gauze pad has a radius of 3 cm. What is the area of one side of the pad? Use 3.14 for π.
Correct answer: D
The area of a circle is A = π × r². Square the radius first: 3 × 3 = 9, then multiply by π: 3.14 × 9 = 28.26 cm². Area is always in square units; a result like 2 × π × r is the circumference, a length around the edge.
- A This is 2 × 3.14 × 3, the circumference (distance around), not the area.
- B This uses the diameter, 6 cm, as if it were the radius (3.14 × 6 × 6), making the area four times too big.
- C This multiplies π by the radius without squaring it (3.14 × 3).
- D Correct: A = π × r² = 3.14 × 3 × 3 = 28.26 cm².
Learn this topic: How to find perimeter, area and volume, even for odd shapes 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 9.5 Solve Geometry Applications: Circles and Irregular Figures ·
A hospital courtyard lawn is shaped like a rectangle 40 meters long and 20 meters wide, with a semicircle attached to each of the two 20-meter ends. A walking path runs along the entire outer edge of the lawn. How long is one lap of the path, in meters? Use 3.14 for π. Round to the nearest tenth.
Correct answer: 142.8
The outer edge is made of the two 40 m straight sides plus the two curved semicircle edges; the 20 m ends are inside the shape, so they are not part of the path. Two semicircles with a diameter of 20 m make one full circle, so their total length is C = π × d = 3.14 × 20 = 62.8 m. One lap is 40 + 40 + 62.8 = 142.8 m. Adding the 20 m ends as well would give 182.8 m, which counts edges that are not on the outside.
Learn this topic: How to find perimeter, area and volume, even for odd shapes 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 9.5 Solve Geometry Applications: Circles and Irregular Figures · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 9.4 Use Properties of Rectangles, Triangles, and Trapezoids ·
A nurse parks in the corner of a rectangular parking lot that is 60 meters wide and 80 meters long. To reach the clinic door at the opposite corner, she can walk along two sides of the lot or walk straight across it diagonally. How many meters shorter is the diagonal route?
Correct answer: C
The two sides of the lot meet at a right angle, so the diagonal is the hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs 60 m and 80 m. By the Pythagorean theorem, 60² + 80² = 3,600 + 6,400 = 10,000, and the square root of 10,000 is 100 m. Walking along the two sides is 60 + 80 = 140 m, so the diagonal saves 140 − 100 = 40 m.
- A This just subtracts the two sides (80 − 60) instead of comparing the two routes.
- B This is the length of the diagonal itself; the question asks how much shorter it is than the 140 m route.
- C Correct: the diagonal is 100 m (60² + 80² = 100²) and the route along the sides is 140 m, a difference of 40 m.
- D This treats the hypotenuse as a + b (60 + 80 = 140), as if both routes were equal; the legs must be squared before adding, so the diagonal is shorter.
Learn this topic: How to find perimeter, area and volume, even for odd shapes 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 9.3 Use Properties of Angles, Triangles, and the Pythagorean Theorem ·
A vitamin tablet contains 0.25 g of vitamin C. How many milligrams of vitamin C does the tablet contain?
Correct answer: B
Milli means one-thousandth, so 1 g = 1,000 mg. Converting to a smaller unit makes the number bigger: multiply by 1,000, which moves the decimal point 3 places to the right. 0.25 g × 1,000 = 250 mg.
- A This moves the decimal only 1 place, as if 1 g were 10 mg.
- B Correct: 0.25 × 1,000 = 250 mg, because 1 g = 1,000 mg.
- C This moves the decimal only 2 places, as if 1 g were 100 mg (that would be centigrams).
- D This divides by 1,000 instead of multiplying, moving the decimal the wrong way.
Learn this topic: How to convert units without guessing: metric, US and health-care units 6-minute lesson
Source: NIST, SI Units: Mass · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 7.5 Systems of Measurement ·
On an intake record, a patient drank 1 1/2 cups of juice at breakfast and 12 fluid ounces of water later in the morning. What was the patient's total fluid intake for the morning in milliliters? (Use 1 cup = 8 fl oz and 1 fl oz = 30 mL.) Enter a whole number.
Correct answer: 720
Put everything in the same unit first. The juice is 1 1/2 cups × 8 fl oz per cup = 12 fl oz, so the total is 12 + 12 = 24 fl oz. Then 24 fl oz × 30 mL per fl oz = 720 mL. A common mistake is to use 16 ounces per cup (that is ounces in a pound), which gives 1,080 mL.
Learn this topic: How to convert units without guessing: metric, US and health-care units 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 7.5 Systems of Measurement · NIST, Metric Kitchen: Cooking Measurement Equivalencies ·
During a rehabilitation session, a patient walks on a treadmill set to 2.4 miles per hour. What is this speed in meters per minute? (1 mi ≈ 1.61 km)
Correct answer: B
Chain unit fractions so each unwanted unit cancels: 2.4 mi/h × (1.61 km / 1 mi) × (1,000 m / 1 km) × (1 h / 60 min). That is 2.4 × 1.61 = 3.864 km per hour, which is 3,864 m per hour, and 3,864 ÷ 60 = 64.4 m per minute. Converting both the distance unit and the time unit is what makes this a two-part problem.
- A This converts miles to meters but forgets to change hours to minutes; 3,864 is meters per hour.
- B Correct: 2.4 × 1.61 × 1,000 ÷ 60 = 64.4 meters per minute.
- C This divides by 1.61 instead of multiplying (2.4 ÷ 1.61 × 1,000 ÷ 60), so the miles-to-kilometers fraction is upside down.
- D This forgets that 1 km = 1,000 m, leaving the answer in kilometers per minute (3.864 ÷ 60).
Learn this topic: How to convert units without guessing: metric, US and health-care units 6-minute lesson
Source: NIST, Approximate Conversions from U.S. Customary Measures to Metric · OpenStax Prealgebra 2e, 7.5 Systems of Measurement ·
Place these parts of the heart's conduction system in the order the electrical signal travels through them during a normal heartbeat.
- Bundle branches
- Atrioventricular (AV) node
- Purkinje fibers
- Sinoatrial (SA) node
- Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: Sinoatrial (SA) node → Atrioventricular (AV) node → Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) → Bundle branches → Purkinje fibers
The SA node in the right atrial wall is the pacemaker and starts each beat. The signal reaches the AV node, which delays it so the atria can finish emptying into the ventricles, then travels down the AV bundle (bundle of His) in the interventricular septum, splits into the right and left bundle branches, and finally spreads through the ventricles by way of the Purkinje fibers. Think of it as top to bottom: atria first, then down the septum, then out into the ventricle walls.
- Bundle branches Fourth: the bundle branches split off the bundle of His and carry the signal toward each ventricle; students who put them before the bundle of His reverse the trunk and its branches.
- Atrioventricular (AV) node Second: the AV node receives the signal from the atria and delays it; placing it first confuses it with the SA node pacemaker.
- Purkinje fibers Fifth: the Purkinje fibers are the last link, spreading the signal through the ventricle muscle so the ventricles contract.
- Sinoatrial (SA) node First: the SA node has the fastest built-in firing rate and acts as the heart's pacemaker, so every normal beat starts here.
- Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) Third: the bundle of His carries the signal from the AV node down the interventricular septum before it divides into the bundle branches.
Learn this topic: How blood flows through the heart 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity ·
Suppose the mitral (bicuspid) valve does not close completely when the ventricles contract. Which abnormal blood flow would most likely occur during each contraction?
Correct answer: B
The mitral (bicuspid) valve is the atrioventricular valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle. When the left ventricle contracts, its pressure rises above the atrial pressure, and this valve normally snaps shut (helped by the chordae tendineae and papillary muscles) so blood can leave only through the aortic valve. If it does not seal, some blood is pushed backward into the left atrium. To solve any "which valve failed" question, locate the valve first, then ask which chamber is squeezing when it should be closed.
- A Backflow from the aorta into the left ventricle happens when the aortic semilunar valve fails, and it occurs while the ventricle is relaxing, not contracting.
- B Correct: the mitral valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle, so a leak during ventricular contraction sends blood back into the left atrium.
- C Backflow from the right ventricle into the right atrium describes a leaking tricuspid valve, which mixes up the right and left atrioventricular valves.
- D The two ventricles are separated by the interventricular septum, not by a valve, so a mitral valve that fails to close does not open a path between them.
Learn this topic: How blood flows through the heart 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 19.1 Heart Anatomy · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 19.3 Cardiac Cycle ·
Which of the following events occur during a normal, quiet inhalation? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: B, D, E
Inhalation follows Boyle's law: when the volume of a container increases, the pressure of the gas inside it decreases. The diaphragm contracts and moves down while the external intercostals lift the ribs, so the thoracic cavity gets larger and pressure in the alveoli drops below atmospheric pressure, and air flows in. Quiet exhalation is the passive opposite: the muscles relax and the lungs' elastic recoil pushes air out.
- A Incorrect: the internal intercostals compress the rib cage during forced exhalation; during inhalation it is the external intercostals that lift the ribs up and out.
- B Correct: contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostals enlarges the thoracic cavity, which is what lowers the pressure inside the lungs.
- C Incorrect: elastic recoil of the lungs is what pushes air out during quiet exhalation; it does not pull air in.
- D Correct: the dome-shaped diaphragm contracts and moves inferiorly toward the abdominal cavity, the main way the chest cavity enlarges.
- E Correct: the larger volume lowers intra-alveolar pressure below atmospheric pressure, creating the gradient that drives air into the lungs.
Learn this topic: How air reaches the alveoli and how oxygen and CO2 trade places 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 22.3 The Process of Breathing · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 11.4 Axial Muscles of the Abdominal Wall and Thorax ·
During a long breath-hold, carbon dioxide builds up in a person's blood. How do the respiratory centers in the brainstem respond, and why?
Correct answer: B
The main stimulus that drives breathing is the level of carbon dioxide in the blood, not oxygen. Extra carbon dioxide produces more hydrogen ions, which lowers pH; chemoreceptors detect this and signal the respiratory centers in the medulla oblongata and pons. Breathing becomes faster and deeper so more carbon dioxide is exhaled. Low oxygen becomes a strong stimulus only when it drops very low.
- A Incorrect on both points: added carbon dioxide lowers pH (more hydrogen ions), and the response is faster, deeper breathing, not slower breathing.
- B Correct: more carbon dioxide means more hydrogen ions and a lower pH, which chemoreceptors detect, so the brainstem increases the rate and depth of breathing.
- C Incorrect: carbon dioxide, not oxygen, is the main everyday driver of breathing; oxygen becomes a strong stimulus only when it falls very low.
- D Incorrect: the breathing response is right, but the reason is reversed; carbon dioxide forms carbonic acid and hydrogen ions, which lower pH rather than raise it.
Learn this topic: How air reaches the alveoli and how oxygen and CO2 trade places 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 22.3 The Process of Breathing ·
The urinary bladder and the system it belongs to can illustrate the levels of structural organization of the body. Place these examples in order from the simplest level to the most complex.
- The urinary system (kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra)
- A single smooth muscle cell
- The urinary bladder
- A water molecule
- A layer of smooth muscle tissue
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: A water molecule → A single smooth muscle cell → A layer of smooth muscle tissue → The urinary bladder → The urinary system (kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra)
Body structure builds through six levels: chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, and organism. A water molecule is at the chemical level, a smooth muscle cell is at the cellular level, a layer of similar muscle cells working together is a tissue, the bladder is an organ made of two or more tissue types, and the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra together form the urinary system. Each level is built from the one before it.
- The urinary system (kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra) Fifth: the urinary system is an organ system, a group of organs working together, which is the most complex level listed.
- A single smooth muscle cell Second: a cell is the smallest independently functioning unit of life, one step above the chemical level.
- The urinary bladder Fourth: the bladder is an organ because it is a distinct structure built from two or more tissue types; placing it above the urinary system reverses organ and organ system.
- A water molecule First: a molecule belongs to the chemical level, the simplest level of organization.
- A layer of smooth muscle tissue Third: a tissue is a group of similar cells working together; students who put it before the cell reverse the cell and tissue levels.
Learn this topic: How to describe any location on the human body 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 1.2 Structural Organization of the Human Body ·
A patient lies prone on an exam table with both hands resting palm-down beside the hips. A small scar is on the palm side of the right wrist. Which term correctly describes the location of the scar?
Correct answer: B
Anatomical terms are always applied as if the body were in anatomical position, standing with the palms facing forward, no matter how the body is actually lying. In that position the palm side of the wrist faces the front, so it is anterior even when the person is prone with the palm down. The wrist is the carpal region; the forearm is antebrachial and the upper arm is brachial.
- A This describes the wrist by its current orientation (facing the table) instead of by anatomical position, where the palm side faces forward.
- B Correct: in anatomical position the palm side of the wrist faces forward, so the scar is in the anterior carpal region.
- C Antebrachial refers to the forearm, between the elbow and the wrist, not the wrist itself.
- D Brachial refers to the upper arm, between the shoulder and the elbow, not the wrist.
Learn this topic: How to describe any location on the human body 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 1.6 Anatomical Terminology ·
Suppose the serous fluid between the visceral and parietal layers of the pleura were almost completely absent. Which problem would most likely result?
Correct answer: D
The pleura is the serous membrane of the lungs: its visceral layer covers each lung and its parietal layer lines the wall of the thoracic cavity. The thin serous fluid between the two layers lets the lungs slide smoothly as they inflate, so without it friction between the lungs and the body wall would increase. To solve these items, match the membrane to its organ (pleura = lungs, pericardium = heart, peritoneum = abdominopelvic organs) and remember that serous fluid's job is reducing friction.
- A Friction around the heart is prevented by the pericardium and its own serous fluid, not by the pleura.
- B The brain and spinal cord are cushioned by cerebrospinal fluid in the dorsal cavity, which is not a serous fluid.
- C The diaphragm, a muscular sheet, separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities; serous fluid does not form that boundary.
- D Correct: pleural fluid reduces friction between the lungs and the chest wall, so losing it would make the lungs rub against the wall as they move.
Learn this topic: How to describe any location on the human body 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 1.6 Anatomical Terminology ·
Which of the following bones is part of the appendicular skeleton?
Correct answer: C
The appendicular skeleton contains the bones of the upper and lower limbs plus the bones that attach each limb to the axial skeleton. The scapula, together with the clavicle, forms the pectoral (shoulder) girdle that attaches the upper limb to the trunk, so it is appendicular. The axial skeleton is the central axis: skull and associated bones such as the hyoid, the vertebral column including the sacrum and coccyx, and the thoracic cage of ribs and sternum.
- A The sacrum is part of the vertebral column and therefore axial, even though it sits in the pelvis.
- B The sternum is part of the thoracic cage, which belongs to the axial skeleton.
- C Correct: the scapula is part of the pectoral girdle, which attaches the upper limb to the axial skeleton, so it is appendicular.
- D The hyoid bone is one of the bones associated with the head and is counted in the axial skeleton.
Learn this topic: How bones are built, remodeled, and joined 7-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 7.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 8.1 The Pectoral Girdle ·
Which statements correctly describe spongy (cancellous) bone? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: B, C, E
Spongy bone is a lattice of thin struts called trabeculae, each forming along lines of stress so the bone stays strong but light. It fills the epiphyses of long bones, and red marrow, where blood cells are made, fills its spaces. Osteons with concentric lamellae and a central canal are the structural units of compact bone, which forms the dense walls of the diaphysis.
- A Osteons (Haversian systems) are the units of compact bone; spongy bone has trabeculae instead of concentric rings.
- B Correct: each trabecula forms along lines of stress, giving spongy bone strength without much weight.
- C Correct: the epiphyses at the ends of a long bone are filled with spongy bone.
- D The walls of the diaphysis are compact bone; this choice swaps the locations of compact and spongy bone.
- E Correct: red marrow fills the spaces of spongy bone, and blood cell production takes place there.
Learn this topic: How bones are built, remodeled, and joined 7-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 6.3 Bone Structure ·
A burn destroys the full thickness of the epidermis and the dermis in one area of skin, but the underlying muscle is not damaged. Which outcome is most likely in the burned area?
Correct answer: D
Damage through the entire epidermis and dermis, without reaching muscle or bone, is a third-degree burn. Because the nerve endings in the dermis are destroyed, these burns are usually less painful than second-degree burns, which damage only part of the dermis and cause painful blisters. The stratum basale, whose stem cells normally rebuild the epidermis, is also destroyed, so the area cannot be repaired from local tissue.
- A Healing in a few days describes a first-degree burn, which affects only the epidermis.
- B The stratum basale is part of the epidermis, so in this burn it is destroyed and cannot regrow the layer; full-thickness burns cannot be repaired by the body.
- C Painful blistering with partial dermal damage describes a second-degree burn, but this burn destroyed the whole dermis.
- D Correct: a burn through the full epidermis and dermis is third-degree, and destroyed nerve endings usually make it less painful than a shallower burn.
Learn this topic: How your skin is layered and what each layer does 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 5.4 Diseases, Disorders, and Injuries of the Integumentary System · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 5.1 Layers of the Skin ·
Which enzyme begins the chemical digestion of protein, and where does it first act?
Correct answer: C
Protein digestion begins in the stomach. Chief cells secrete inactive pepsinogen, and hydrochloric acid from parietal cells converts it into pepsin, which splits proteins into smaller peptides. Pancreatic enzymes such as trypsin and chymotrypsin, and finally brush border peptidases, finish the job in the small intestine. A quick rule: starch starts in the mouth, protein in the stomach, and nearly all fat in the small intestine.
- A Salivary amylase does start chemical digestion in the mouth, but it acts on starch (a carbohydrate), not protein.
- B Trypsin does digest protein, but it comes from the pancreas and works in the small intestine, after protein digestion has already started.
- C Correct: pepsin, activated from pepsinogen by stomach acid, is the first enzyme to break down protein, and it acts in the stomach.
- D Pancreatic lipase acts in the small intestine on emulsified fats (triglycerides), not on proteins.
Learn this topic: How food is broken down and absorbed, from mouth to colon 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 23.7 Chemical Digestion and Absorption: A Closer Look · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 23.4 The Stomach ·
A meal has just left the esophagus. Place the following structures in the order the food, and then the chyme made from it, passes through them.
- Jejunum
- Stomach
- Cecum
- Duodenum
- Ileum
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: Stomach → Duodenum → Jejunum → Ileum → Cecum
From the esophagus, food enters the stomach, where it is mixed into chyme and released a little at a time through the pyloric sphincter. The chyme then travels the three parts of the small intestine in order: the duodenum (shortest, where bile and pancreatic juice enter), the jejunum, and the ileum (longest). The ileum empties through the ileocecal valve into the cecum, the first part of the large intestine.
- Jejunum Third: the jejunum is the middle section of the small intestine, between the duodenum and the ileum.
- Stomach First: the esophagus delivers food through the lower esophageal sphincter into the stomach.
- Cecum Fifth: the cecum is the first part of the large intestine and receives material from the ileum through the ileocecal valve; placing it earlier confuses the large and small intestines.
- Duodenum Second: the duodenum begins at the pyloric sphincter and is the first and shortest part of the small intestine.
- Ileum Fourth: the ileum is the last and longest part of the small intestine; students who put it before the jejunum reverse the middle two segments.
Learn this topic: How food is broken down and absorbed, from mouth to colon 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 23.5 The Small and Large Intestines · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 23.1 Overview of the Digestive System ·
A disease flattens many of the villi and microvilli lining a person's small intestine, but the liver and pancreas still work normally. Which result is most likely?
Correct answer: C
Circular folds, villi, and microvilli give the small intestine its enormous absorptive surface, so losing villi and microvilli reduces absorption of nutrients. The microvilli also form the brush border, which holds enzymes such as lactase, sucrase, maltase, and peptidases that finish digesting carbohydrates and proteins. Pancreatic juice and bile would still arrive, so earlier steps continue, but the final digestion and absorption steps on the intestinal lining would suffer.
- A Pepsin is secreted as pepsinogen by chief cells of the stomach, so damage to intestinal microvilli would not stop protein digestion in the stomach.
- B Bile is made by the liver and stored by the gallbladder, and the stem says the liver still works, so emulsification would continue.
- C Correct: villi and microvilli provide most of the absorptive surface, and brush border enzymes such as lactase sit on the microvilli, so both absorption and final carbohydrate digestion would fall.
- D The large intestine has no villi and few enzyme-secreting cells; it mainly absorbs water, salts, and vitamins from bacteria, so it cannot take over nutrient absorption.
Learn this topic: How food is broken down and absorbed, from mouth to colon 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 23.5 The Small and Large Intestines · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 23.7 Chemical Digestion and Absorption: A Closer Look ·
In which part of the nephron is blood plasma first filtered to form the fluid that will become urine?
Correct answer: B
Filtration happens in the renal corpuscle: blood pressure in the glomerulus, a tuft of capillaries, pushes water and small solutes into the surrounding glomerular (Bowman's) capsule. Blood cells and large proteins stay behind. Everything after the capsule, from the proximal convoluted tubule to the collecting duct, modifies this filtrate by reabsorption and secretion rather than filtering blood again.
- A The proximal convoluted tubule receives filtrate from Bowman's capsule and is the main site of reabsorption, not filtration.
- B Correct: the glomerulus filters plasma into Bowman's capsule; together they form the renal corpuscle.
- C The loop of Henle reabsorbs water and salt from filtrate that has already formed; it does not filter blood.
- D The collecting duct makes the final adjustments to water content under ADH, at the end of the process rather than the start.
Learn this topic: How the kidneys filter blood and make urine 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 25.3 Gross Anatomy of the Kidney · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 25.4 Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney ·
Place the following structures in the order that filtrate passes through them, starting from the moment it is filtered out of the blood.
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
- Collecting duct
- Proximal convoluted tubule
- Loop of Henle
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule → Proximal convoluted tubule → Loop of Henle → Distal convoluted tubule → Collecting duct
Filtrate forms in the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule and flows into the proximal convoluted tubule, the main site of reabsorption. It then runs down and back up the loop of Henle, through the distal convoluted tubule, and into a collecting duct that is shared by several nephrons. A helpful pattern is proximal (near the capsule) before distal (far from it), with the loop in between.
- Distal convoluted tubule Fourth: the distal convoluted tubule comes after the loop of Henle; putting it before the loop mixes up proximal and distal.
- Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule First: filtrate is captured by Bowman's capsule around the glomerulus.
- Collecting duct Fifth: the collecting duct receives fluid from the distal convoluted tubules of several nephrons and carries it toward the renal pelvis.
- Proximal convoluted tubule Second: the proximal convoluted tubule receives filtrate directly from Bowman's capsule.
- Loop of Henle Third: the loop of Henle dips toward the medulla and returns between the proximal and distal tubules.
Learn this topic: How the kidneys filter blood and make urine 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 25.4 Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 25.6 Tubular Reabsorption ·
A tumor of the adrenal cortex causes it to secrete far too much aldosterone. Which change in kidney function is most likely?
Correct answer: A
Aldosterone, a hormone of the adrenal cortex, increases sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Water follows the reabsorbed sodium by osmosis, so blood volume and blood pressure tend to rise, and at the same time more potassium is excreted. When predicting the effect of any kidney hormone, ask which substance it makes the tubule keep and which it makes the tubule lose.
- A Correct: excess aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption, water follows the sodium, and potassium excretion increases.
- B This reverses aldosterone's effect; reduced sodium reabsorption describes too little aldosterone or the action of natriuretic hormones.
- C Inserting aquaporins into collecting duct cells is the action of ADH from the posterior pituitary, not aldosterone.
- D Constricting the glomerular arterioles is an action of angiotensin II, not aldosterone; aldosterone acts on tubule sodium and potassium handling.
Learn this topic: How the kidneys filter blood and make urine 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 25.8 Endocrine Regulation of Kidney Function · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 25.6 Tubular Reabsorption ·
In which organ do T lymphocytes complete their maturation?
Correct answer: D
All lymphocytes start in the red bone marrow, but the two types finish maturing in different primary lymphoid organs: B cells in the bone marrow and T cells in the thymus, a gland above the heart. Mature, naive lymphocytes then gather in secondary lymphoid organs such as lymph nodes and the spleen, where they meet antigens and launch responses. Memory hook: B for bone marrow, T for thymus.
- A T cells originate in the red bone marrow, but it is B cells, not T cells, that complete their maturation there.
- B The spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ that filters blood and hosts immune responses; lymphocytes arrive there already mature.
- C Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs where mature lymphocytes meet antigens, not where T cells mature.
- D Correct: immature T cells (thymocytes) leave the bone marrow and mature in the thymus, a primary lymphoid organ.
Learn this topic: How the body defends itself: innate and adaptive immunity 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems ·
Which of the following produce active immunity? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C
Active immunity means the person's own immune system mounts a response and forms memory cells. That happens after a natural infection (naturally acquired) or after a vaccine, which contains a killed or weakened pathogen or its parts (artificially acquired). Passive immunity means receiving ready-made antibodies from another source, such as the placenta, breast milk, or an immune globulin injection; it works quickly but fades because no memory cells form.
- A Correct: fighting off an infection makes the person's own B and T cells respond and form memory, which is naturally acquired active immunity.
- B Maternal IgG crossing the placenta is ready-made antibody, so this is naturally acquired passive immunity.
- C Correct: a vaccine stimulates the person's own immune system to make antibodies and memory cells, which is artificially acquired active immunity.
- D IgA in breast milk is transferred ready-made from the parent, so this is naturally acquired passive immunity.
- E An immune globulin injection gives ready-made antibodies for temporary protection, which is artificially acquired passive immunity.
Learn this topic: How the body defends itself: innate and adaptive immunity 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response: B-lymphocytes and Antibodies ·
A drug blocks helper T cells from releasing their cytokines but does not affect other cells directly. Which defense would be most reduced?
Correct answer: B
Helper T cells (CD4) coordinate the adaptive response by releasing cytokines; one group of them drives B cells to become antibody-secreting plasma cells. Antibody responses to most protein antigens depend on this T cell help, so blocking helper T cytokines would sharply reduce them. Barriers such as skin and lysozyme, and inflammation triggered by mast cells, are innate defenses that work without helper T cells.
- A The skin barrier is an innate defense that works continuously and does not depend on helper T cell signals.
- B Correct: B cells need helper T cell cytokines to become plasma cells that make antibodies against most protein antigens.
- C Lysozyme in saliva is an innate chemical barrier that acts on its own, without signals from T cells.
- D Histamine release by mast cells after tissue injury is part of innate inflammation, which is triggered by damaged cells, not by helper T cells.
Learn this topic: How the body defends itself: innate and adaptive immunity 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 21.3 The Adaptive Immune Response: T lymphocytes and Their Functional Types · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 21.2 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response ·
Which brain region compares the motor commands sent by the cerebrum with sensory feedback from the muscles and joints, then sends corrections that keep movements coordinated?
Correct answer: C
The cerebellum receives a copy of each motor command from the cerebrum and compares it with feedback about how the body is actually moving and balancing. When the two do not match, for example on uneven ground, it sends a corrective signal so the movement stays smooth and coordinated. Pair each region with one job: cerebellum for coordination, medulla and pons for heart and breathing rates, hypothalamus for homeostasis.
- A The hypothalamus regulates homeostasis and controls the autonomic nervous system and the anterior pituitary; it does not correct movement.
- B The medulla (with the pons) regulates heart rate and breathing rate; picking it confuses the brain stem's survival functions with movement coordination.
- C Correct: the cerebellum compares commands from the cerebrum with sensory feedback and sends corrections to keep movement coordinated.
- D The occipital lobe is responsible for primary visual perception, not for comparing motor commands with feedback.
Learn this topic: How the nervous system sends and sorts signals 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 13.2 The Central Nervous System ·
A hiker suddenly sees a bear on the trail ahead. Which responses would the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system produce? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, B, D
The sympathetic division drives the fight-or-flight response: it raises heart rate and breathing rate and shifts blood toward skeletal muscle and away from the digestive system, so more oxygen reaches the muscles needed to fight or run. The parasympathetic division (rest-and-digest), which reaches the heart and digestive organs through the vagus nerve, has the opposite effects. When a question describes a threat or stress, think sympathetic; when it describes calm and digestion, think parasympathetic.
- A Correct: sympathetic activity increases heart rate to deliver more blood during a threat.
- B Correct: sympathetic activity increases breathing rate so more oxygen is taken in.
- C Incorrect: during fight-or-flight, blood flow to the digestive system decreases; increased digestive activity is a rest-and-digest (parasympathetic) effect.
- D Correct: sympathetic activity increases blood flow to skeletal muscle so it can work hard.
- E Incorrect: the vagus nerve carries parasympathetic fibers, and slowing the heart is the opposite of the sympathetic response.
Learn this topic: How the nervous system sends and sorts signals 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 15.1 Divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System ·
Which feature is found in RNA but not in DNA?
Correct answer: B
DNA uses the bases A, T, G, and C, while RNA uses A, U, G, and C: uracil takes the place of thymine and pairs with adenine. RNA also has ribose instead of deoxyribose and is usually single-stranded. Both nucleic acids have a backbone of sugars linked by phosphate groups.
- A Both DNA and RNA have a sugar-phosphate backbone, so phosphate groups are not unique to RNA.
- B Correct: uracil is found in RNA, where it replaces DNA's thymine.
- C Cytosine is found in both DNA and RNA; uracil replaces thymine, not cytosine.
- D Deoxyribose is DNA's sugar; RNA contains ribose, so this reverses the two molecules.
Learn this topic: How a gene in DNA becomes a protein 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Biology 2e, 3.5 Nucleic Acids ·
Place these events in the order they occur as a human cell makes a protein from one of its genes.
- The mRNA travels out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm.
- RNA polymerase binds the promoter and builds RNA from the DNA template.
- A ribosome reaches a stop codon and releases the finished chain.
- Introns are cut out of the RNA and the exons are joined.
- A tRNA carrying methionine pairs with the AUG start codon.
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: RNA polymerase binds the promoter and builds RNA from the DNA template. → Introns are cut out of the RNA and the exons are joined. → The mRNA travels out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm. → A tRNA carrying methionine pairs with the AUG start codon. → A ribosome reaches a stop codon and releases the finished chain.
Transcription comes first: in the nucleus, RNA polymerase binds the promoter and copies the gene into RNA. That first transcript is processed by removing introns and joining exons, and the finished mRNA then leaves the nucleus. In the cytoplasm, translation starts when the initiator tRNA carrying methionine pairs with the AUG start codon, and it ends when the ribosome reaches a stop codon and the chain is released.
- The mRNA travels out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm. Third: the mRNA leaves the nucleus only after it has been transcribed and its introns removed.
- RNA polymerase binds the promoter and builds RNA from the DNA template. First: transcription by RNA polymerase in the nucleus starts the whole process.
- A ribosome reaches a stop codon and releases the finished chain. Fifth: reaching a stop codon ends translation, so it is the last step.
- Introns are cut out of the RNA and the exons are joined. Second: introns are removed from the new transcript while it is still in the nucleus, before it is exported.
- A tRNA carrying methionine pairs with the AUG start codon. Fourth: translation begins at the AUG start codon once the mRNA is at a ribosome in the cytoplasm.
Learn this topic: How a gene in DNA becomes a protein 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 3.4 Protein Synthesis · OpenStax Biology 2e, 15.5 Ribosomes and Protein Synthesis · OpenStax Biology 2e, 15.1 The Genetic Code ·
Near the start of a gene's coding sequence, a single nucleotide is deleted from the DNA. Which effect on the protein is most likely?
Correct answer: D
Ribosomes read mRNA in groups of three bases (codons), starting from the start codon. Deleting one base shifts the reading frame, so every codon after that point is grouped wrongly and the amino acid sequence from there on changes; this frameshift usually makes the protein nonfunctional. A substitution changes only one codon, which is why it causes smaller effects such as silent or missense mutations.
- A Changing a single amino acid describes a missense substitution, not a deletion that shifts the reading frame.
- B Code redundancy can hide a substitution (a silent mutation), but it cannot fix a shifted reading frame.
- C Losing exactly one amino acid would require deleting three bases (one whole codon), not one base.
- D Correct: a one-base deletion causes a frameshift, so all downstream codons are misread and the protein is usually nonfunctional.
Learn this topic: How a gene in DNA becomes a protein 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Biology 2e, 14.6 DNA Repair · OpenStax Biology 2e, 15.1 The Genetic Code ·
In pea plants, the allele for yellow seeds (Y) is dominant over the allele for green seeds (y). Which description fits a plant with the genotype Yy?
Correct answer: D
A genotype with two different alleles, such as Yy, is heterozygous; two identical alleles (YY or yy) is homozygous. The phenotype is the trait you can see. Because Y is dominant, it masks y, so a Yy plant has yellow seeds, just like a YY plant. Green seeds appear only in yy plants.
- A Yy has two different alleles, so it is not homozygous, and the dominant Y allele hides the green trait.
- B The genotype term is right, but the recessive green phenotype shows only when no dominant Y allele is present.
- C The phenotype is right, but homozygous means two identical alleles (YY), not Yy.
- D Correct: Yy has two different alleles (heterozygous), and the dominant Y allele produces yellow seeds.
Learn this topic: How traits pass from parents to children 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Biology 2e, 12.2 Characteristics and Traits ·
In snapdragons, flower color shows incomplete dominance: red-flowered plants crossed with white-flowered plants produce pink-flowered offspring. If two pink-flowered plants are crossed, what fraction of their offspring is expected to have pink flowers?
Correct answer: C
Pink plants are heterozygous (one red allele and one white allele), because neither allele is dominant and the heterozygote shows an in-between color. A cross of two heterozygotes gives a 1:2:1 genotype ratio: 1 homozygous red : 2 heterozygous : 1 homozygous white. With incomplete dominance, each genotype has its own phenotype, so the offspring are 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white, and 2 of 4, or 1/2, are pink.
- A One fourth is the expected fraction of red (or of white) offspring, not of pink ones.
- B Three fourths comes from the 3:1 ratio of complete dominance, which does not apply when the heterozygote is a blend.
- C Correct: the cross gives 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white, so half the offspring are expected to be pink.
- D All offspring would be pink only from a red × white cross; two pink parents can each pass on either allele.
Learn this topic: How traits pass from parents to children 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Biology 2e, 12.2 Characteristics and Traits ·
A woman with type AB blood and a man with type O blood have children together. Which statements about their children are correct? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, D, E
In the ABO system, the Iᴬ and Iᴮ alleles are codominant and i is recessive. The type AB mother is IᴬIᴮ and passes either Iᴬ or Iᴮ; the type O father is ii and can only pass i. So each child is either Iᴬi (type A) or Iᴮi (type B). No child can be type AB (that needs both Iᴬ and Iᴮ) or type O (that needs i from both parents).
- A Correct: a child who gets Iᴬ from the mother and i from the father is Iᴬi, which is type A.
- B Type AB needs both Iᴬ and Iᴮ, but the father can pass only i, so a child cannot be type AB.
- C Type O needs two i alleles, but the mother has no i allele to pass on.
- D Correct: a child who gets Iᴮ from the mother and i from the father is Iᴮi, which is type B.
- E Correct: the type O father is ii, so every child receives an i allele from him.
Learn this topic: How traits pass from parents to children 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 28.7 Patterns of Inheritance · OpenStax Biology 2e, 12.2 Characteristics and Traits · OpenStax Concepts of Biology, 8.3 Extensions of the Laws of Inheritance ·
Which pairing correctly matches a monomer with a polymer built from it?
Correct answer: C
Each class of macromolecule has its own building block: monosaccharides build carbohydrates such as starch and glycogen, amino acids build polypeptides (proteins), and nucleotides build nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). Starch is a long chain of glucose, a monosaccharide, which plants use to store energy. When you see a polymer, first name its class, then recall that class's monomer.
- A Amino acids are the monomers of proteins; DNA is a nucleic acid built from nucleotides.
- B This swaps the building blocks: nucleotides build nucleic acids, while polypeptides are built from amino acids.
- C Correct: starch is a polysaccharide made of many glucose units, and glucose is a monosaccharide.
- D Glycogen is a polysaccharide made of glucose; fatty acids are parts of lipids such as triglycerides and phospholipids.
Learn this topic: The four macromolecules of life and how cells build them 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Biology 2e, 3.1 Synthesis of Biological Macromolecules · OpenStax Biology 2e, 3.2 Carbohydrates · OpenStax Biology 2e, 3.4 Proteins · OpenStax Biology 2e, 3.5 Nucleic Acids ·
A student is sorting molecules into the four classes of macromolecules. Which of the following belong in the carbohydrate group? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C, D
Carbohydrates include simple sugars, disaccharides and polysaccharides. Lactose is a disaccharide (glucose plus galactose), glycogen is the polysaccharide animals use to store glucose, and cellulose is the structural polysaccharide of plant cell walls. Cholesterol is a steroid, which is a lipid, and hemoglobin is a transport protein.
- A Correct: glycogen is a polysaccharide, the storage form of glucose in humans and other vertebrates.
- B Cholesterol is a steroid with four fused carbon rings, so it is a lipid, not a carbohydrate.
- C Correct: lactose (milk sugar) is a disaccharide made of glucose and galactose.
- D Correct: cellulose is a polysaccharide that gives plant cell walls their strength.
- E Hemoglobin is a transport protein that carries oxygen in the blood, not a carbohydrate.
Learn this topic: The four macromolecules of life and how cells build them 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Biology 2e, 3.2 Carbohydrates · OpenStax Biology 2e, 3.3 Lipids · OpenStax Biology 2e, 3.4 Proteins ·
An influenza virus spreads from one person to another. Place the links in the chain of infection in order, starting with where the virus lives and multiplies.
- Portal of entry
- Mode of transmission
- Reservoir
- Susceptible host
- Portal of exit
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: Reservoir → Portal of exit → Mode of transmission → Portal of entry → Susceptible host
An infectious agent lives and multiplies in a reservoir (here, an infected person), leaves through a portal of exit (the respiratory tract), travels by a mode of transmission (such as droplets), enters through a portal of entry (the new person's respiratory tract) and causes infection in a susceptible host. The two portals bracket the mode of transmission: the agent must get out before it can travel, and travel before it can get in.
- Portal of entry Fourth: the portal of entry is where the agent gets into the new host, which can happen only after it has traveled.
- Mode of transmission Third: the mode of transmission (direct contact, droplets, airborne particles, vehicles or vectors) carries the agent between the exit and the entry.
- Reservoir First: the reservoir is the habitat where the agent normally lives, grows and multiplies, so the chain starts here.
- Susceptible host Fifth: the susceptible host is the final link, the person whose defenses do not stop the agent.
- Portal of exit Second: the portal of exit is how the agent leaves the reservoir, such as the respiratory tract for influenza.
Learn this topic: How microorganisms cause disease and how infections spread 5-minute lesson
Source: CDC, Principles of Epidemiology, Lesson 1 Section 10: Chain of Infection ·
A person takes an antibacterial drug that kills many kinds of bacteria, including much of the normal microbiota. A few days later, the yeast Candida begins to overgrow. Which explanation best accounts for this?
Correct answer: C
Candida is a fungus (a yeast), so antibacterial drugs do not affect it. Normally, neighboring bacteria of the normal microbiota hold its population down. When a drug kills those bacteria, Candida can overgrow and act as an opportunistic pathogen, which is why yeast infections are a known side effect of antibiotics.
- A Antibacterial drugs target bacteria; they do not act on fungal cells to speed up their division.
- B Candida is a fungus (yeast), not a bacterium, so this confuses the two groups; resistance is not the reason it grows.
- C Correct: removing the bacteria that normally inhibit Candida lets the unaffected yeast overgrow.
- D Bacteria are prokaryotes and yeasts are eukaryotes; one cannot turn into the other.
Learn this topic: How microorganisms cause disease and how infections spread 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Microbiology, 15.2 How Pathogens Cause Disease · OpenStax Microbiology, 1.3 Types of Microorganisms · MedlinePlus: Antibiotics ·
Which number identifies an atom as a particular element?
Correct answer: B
The number of protons is the atomic number, and it defines the element: every atom with 6 protons is carbon, and every atom with 11 protons is sodium. Atoms of one element can have different numbers of neutrons (isotopes) or electrons (ions) and still be the same element. Protons plus neutrons is the mass number, which can differ between isotopes of the same element.
- A Atoms of the same element can have different numbers of neutrons; those atoms are isotopes, not different elements.
- B Correct: the number of protons is the atomic number, which defines the element.
- C The number of electrons changes when an atom becomes an ion, but the element stays the same.
- D Protons plus neutrons is the mass number, which varies among isotopes of one element, so it cannot identify the element by itself.
Learn this topic: What atoms are made of and how they form ions and bonds 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 2.3 Atomic Structure and Symbolism ·
Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon, which has an atomic number of 6. Which statements about neutral atoms of these two isotopes are true? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, B, D
Isotopes of one element share the same atomic number, so every carbon atom has 6 protons, and a neutral carbon atom also has 6 electrons. The isotopes differ only in neutrons: carbon-12 has 12 − 6 = 6 neutrons and carbon-14 has 14 − 6 = 8, a difference of 2. The extra mass of carbon-14 comes from those neutrons, not from extra protons.
- A Correct: both are carbon, and every carbon atom has 6 protons (atomic number 6).
- B Correct: carbon-12 has 6 neutrons and carbon-14 has 8, so carbon-14 has 2 more.
- C Isotopes of the same element always share the same atomic number; a different atomic number would mean a different element.
- D Correct: in a neutral atom the electrons equal the protons, so both have 6 electrons.
- E Adding protons would change the element; the 2 extra mass units in carbon-14 come from neutrons.
Learn this topic: What atoms are made of and how they form ions and bonds 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 2.3 Atomic Structure and Symbolism · OpenStax Biology 2e, 2.1 Atoms, Isotopes, Ions, and Molecules: The Building Blocks ·
A neutral sulfur atom has 16 protons and 16 electrons. Sulfur is in group 16 of the periodic table. If this atom gains two electrons, which describes the result?
Correct answer: A
Gaining electrons does not change the number of protons, so the atom is still sulfur. It now has 16 protons (+16) and 18 electrons (−18), for a net charge of 2−, which makes it an anion. This matches the pattern for group 16 nonmetals, which tend to gain two electrons and form 2− ions.
- A Correct: 16 protons and 18 electrons give a net 2− charge, and the element is still sulfur.
- B A 2+ charge with 14 electrons would result from losing two electrons, which reverses what happens.
- C Only a change in the number of protons changes the element; adding electrons leaves the atomic number at 16.
- D Isotopes differ in neutrons, but this change involved electrons, so it forms an ion, not a new isotope.
Learn this topic: What atoms are made of and how they form ions and bonds 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 2.3 Atomic Structure and Symbolism · OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 2.6 Ionic and Molecular Compounds ·
A substance keeps the same volume no matter what container it is poured into, but it always takes the shape of that container. Which description fits the particles of this substance?
Correct answer: C
A definite volume but no definite shape describes a liquid. Liquid particles stay close together, which keeps the volume nearly fixed, but they have no regular arrangement and can move past each other, which lets the liquid flow into any shape. Solids keep both shape and volume, and gases take both the shape and the volume of their container.
- A Tightly packed particles in a regular pattern that vibrate in place describe a solid, which keeps its own shape instead of taking the container's shape.
- B Widely spaced particles that move independently describe a gas, which would expand to fill the container instead of keeping a fixed volume.
- C Correct: liquid particles are close together (fixed volume) but have no regular arrangement and slide past one another (no fixed shape).
- D This mixes features of a gas (far apart) and a solid (regular pattern, fixed positions) and does not describe any normal state of matter.
Learn this topic: How matter changes state, and what stays the same 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 1.2 Phases and Classification of Matter · OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 10.1 Intermolecular Forces ·
Which of the following are chemical changes? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, D, E
A chemical change produces one or more new substances, while a physical change only alters state or appearance and keeps the substance's identity. Rusting (iron combining with oxygen and water), cooking meat, and burning a fuel all form new substances. Melting and dissolving are physical changes: the butter is still butter and the sugar is still sugar, just in a different state or spread through water.
- A Correct: rust is a new substance formed when iron combines with oxygen in the presence of water.
- B Melting is a change of state only; liquid butter has the same chemical makeup as solid butter, so this is a physical change.
- C Dissolving spreads the sugar molecules through the water without turning them into a new substance, so it is a physical change.
- D Correct: cooking forms new substances in the meat, and the red-to-brown color change is a sign of that chemical change.
- E Correct: burning (combustion) turns the fuel and oxygen into new substances and releases heat and light.
Learn this topic: How matter changes state, and what stays the same 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 1.3 Physical and Chemical Properties ·
A student finds that a plastic block has a mass of 18.0 g and a volume of 12.0 cm³. She cuts the block into two equal halves. What is the density of each half, and what will a half do when placed in water (density 1.0 g/cm³)?
Correct answer: C
Density is mass divided by volume: 18.0 g ÷ 12.0 cm³ = 1.5 g/cm³. Cutting the block in half halves both the mass (9.0 g) and the volume (6.0 cm³), so each half is still 9.0 ÷ 6.0 = 1.5 g/cm³. Density is an intensive property that does not depend on the amount of material, and because 1.5 g/cm³ is greater than water's 1.0 g/cm³, each half sinks.
- A The density is right, but an object denser than water sinks; a smaller piece does not float just because it is lighter.
- B This halves the density along with the block, but halving the mass also halves the volume, so the density stays 1.5 g/cm³.
- C Correct: each half is 9.0 g ÷ 6.0 cm³ = 1.5 g/cm³, which is denser than water, so it sinks.
- D This halves the density by mistake, and a density of 0.75 g/cm³ would actually float in water, so both parts are wrong.
Learn this topic: How matter changes state, and what stays the same 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 1.4 Measurements ·
Which equation shows a single-replacement reaction?
Correct answer: D
In a single-replacement reaction, one element takes the place of another element in a compound, so each side has one element and one compound. Here zinc replaces hydrogen in hydrochloric acid, forming zinc chloride and releasing hydrogen gas. Compare the patterns: synthesis ends with a single product, double replacement swaps partners between two compounds, and combustion is a fuel reacting with oxygen.
- A Two elements joining into one product is a synthesis reaction (A + B → AB), not a replacement.
- B Methane reacting with oxygen to give carbon dioxide and water is combustion; no element replaces another in a compound.
- C Two compounds swapping partners is double replacement (here a precipitation reaction), which has two compounds on each side.
- D Correct: the element zinc replaces hydrogen in HCl, leaving hydrogen as a free element, which is the single-replacement pattern A + BC → AC + B.
Learn this topic: How to read, balance, and classify a chemical reaction 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 4.2 Classifying Chemical Reactions · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 2.3 Chemical Reactions ·
Consider the balanced equation 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃. Which statements about this equation are true? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C, D
To check a balanced equation, multiply each coefficient by the subscript for each atom: oxygen is 3 × 2 = 6 on the left and 2 × 3 = 6 on the right, and iron is 4 on the left and 2 × 2 = 4 on the right. Only coefficients may change when balancing, because subscripts define the substance itself. Two reactants forming one product fits the synthesis pattern A + B → AB, and conservation of matter requires atoms, not molecules, to match.
- A Correct: 3 O₂ gives 3 × 2 = 6 oxygen atoms, and 2 Fe₂O₃ gives 2 × 3 = 6 oxygen atoms.
- B Changing a subscript changes the substance (O₃ is ozone, not oxygen gas), so balancing must be done with coefficients only.
- C Correct: there are 4 Fe atoms on the left and 2 × 2 = 4 Fe atoms in 2 Fe₂O₃ on the right.
- D Correct: iron and oxygen combine to form one product, Fe₂O₃, which is the synthesis pattern A + B → AB.
- E There are 7 units on the left (4 + 3) and only 2 on the right; a balanced equation needs equal atoms, not equal numbers of molecules.
Learn this topic: How to read, balance, and classify a chemical reaction 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 4.1 Writing and Balancing Chemical Equations · OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 2.3 Chemical Reactions ·
In the blood, carbon dioxide and water form carbonic acid, which releases hydrogen ions. If a person breathes faster and deeper for a short time, exhaling more carbon dioxide than usual, what will most likely happen?
Correct answer: B
Carbon dioxide in blood is tied to carbonic acid, which releases hydrogen ions. Exhaling more CO2 shifts the balance away from carbonic acid, so fewer hydrogen ions remain and pH rises; the lungs can adjust blood pH upward this way within minutes. Breathing out less CO2 does the opposite and lowers pH.
- A This reverses the effect: exhaling CO2 removes the source of carbonic acid, so less carbonic acid forms, not more.
- B Correct: removing CO2 lowers carbonic acid and hydrogen ion levels, so blood pH rises.
- C The direction is right but the reason is backward; a higher pH means fewer hydrogen ions, not more.
- D Buffers limit pH changes but have limited capacity, and changing CO2 changes the buffer system itself, so pH does shift.
Learn this topic: How acids, bases, pH and buffers work 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Anatomy & Physiology 2e, 26.4 Acid-Base Balance · OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 14.6 Buffers ·
Place these masses in order from smallest to largest.
- 1 gram (g)
- 1 milligram (mg)
- 1 kilogram (kg)
- 1 microgram (µg)
- 1 centigram (cg)
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: 1 microgram (µg) → 1 milligram (mg) → 1 centigram (cg) → 1 gram (g) → 1 kilogram (kg)
Metric prefixes change a unit by powers of ten. Micro means one-millionth, milli one-thousandth, centi one-hundredth and kilo one thousand, so 1 µg < 1 mg < 1 cg < 1 g < 1 kg. Each prefix works the same way for meters, liters and grams.
- 1 gram (g) Fourth: the gram is the base unit here, larger than any of its fractions and smaller than a kilogram.
- 1 milligram (mg) Second: 1 mg is one-thousandth of a gram, which is 1,000 times larger than a microgram.
- 1 kilogram (kg) Fifth: kilo means 1,000, so 1 kg equals 1,000 g and is the largest mass in the list.
- 1 microgram (µg) First: micro means one-millionth, so 1 µg (0.000001 g) is the smallest mass in the list.
- 1 centigram (cg) Third: centi means one-hundredth, so 1 cg (0.01 g) equals 10 mg; students who think milli is larger than centi swap these two.
Learn this topic: How to measure like a scientist: units, prefixes, tools and readings 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 1.4 Measurements · NIST, Metric (SI) Prefixes ·
A student pours water into a graduated cylinder marked every 1 mL. Looking at the scale, the student sees that the lowest point of the curved water surface sits about halfway between the 36 mL and 37 mL marks. Where the water touches the glass, the edges of the curve climb up to the 38 mL mark.
Which value should the student record for the volume of water?
Correct answer: B
A graduated cylinder is read at the bottom of the meniscus, the lowest point of the curved liquid surface. You record every certain digit plus one estimated digit; with 1 mL markings, that means estimating to the nearest 0.1 mL. Here the bottom of the meniscus is about halfway between 36 and 37 mL, so the reading is 36.5 mL.
- A 38.0 mL reads the edges where the water climbs the glass instead of the bottom of the meniscus.
- B Correct: it reads the bottom of the meniscus and includes exactly one estimated digit, the tenths place, for a scale marked every 1 mL.
- C 37 mL rounds to the nearest mark and drops the estimated digit, so it reports less information than the cylinder can give.
- D 36.50 mL adds a hundredths digit that a scale marked every 1 mL cannot support, which overstates the precision of the reading.
Learn this topic: How to measure like a scientist: units, prefixes, tools and readings 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 1.5 Measurement Uncertainty, Accuracy, and Precision ·
A water bath is heated from 25 °C to 60 °C. By how much did its temperature increase on the kelvin scale?
Correct answer: C
A kelvin and a Celsius degree are the same size, so a temperature change in kelvins equals the change in degrees Celsius. The bath warmed by 60 − 25 = 35 °C, which is also 35 K. Add 273.15 only when converting a single temperature reading, not a difference between two readings.
- A 63 K multiplies the 35-degree change by 9/5, which converts Celsius degrees to Fahrenheit degrees, not to kelvins.
- B 308 K adds 273 to the 35-degree change, treating a temperature difference as if it were a single temperature reading.
- C Correct: a 35 °C change is a 35 K change because the two units are the same size.
- D 333 K is the final temperature of the bath in kelvins (60 + 273), not how much it increased.
Learn this topic: How to measure like a scientist: units, prefixes, tools and readings 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 1.4 Measurements · NIST, SI Units: Temperature ·
Which statement correctly compares a scientific law with a scientific theory?
Correct answer: B
A scientific law summarizes a large number of observations and describes or predicts what will happen. A theory is a well-substantiated, testable explanation of why a broad set of observations occur. They are different kinds of statements, so a theory does not turn into a law, and neither one is ever considered permanently proven; both can be revised if new evidence requires it.
- A This is the common myth that theories graduate into laws; a theory explains and a law describes, so one does not become the other.
- B Correct: laws describe or predict natural behavior, and theories offer well-tested explanations for it.
- C An untested idea is closer to a hypothesis, and science does not label any hypothesis or theory as proven.
- D This reverses the roles and shrinks a theory to one observation; theories explain broad sets of observations.
Learn this topic: How to use logic and evidence to judge a scientific claim 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 1.1 Chemistry in Context · OpenStax Biology 2e, 1.1 The Science of Biology ·
A company that sells FocusMint chewing gum posts this on its website: "In our study, we gave FocusMint to 10 volunteers from our office. After one week, 8 of the 10 said they felt more focused at work. FocusMint improves concentration!"
Which weaknesses in this study limit the company's conclusion that FocusMint improves concentration? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, B, C
A trustworthy test of a cause-and-effect claim needs enough participants, a control group for comparison, and a way to keep expectations from shaping the results (such as a placebo gum and blinding). This study had only 10 hand-picked volunteers, no comparison group, and self-rated focus from people who knew what they were chewing, so the improvement could be chance, the power of suggestion, or something that would have happened anyway. How a result is written and whether a claim is testable are not flaws.
- A Correct: very small samples can be unreliable because a few unusual people can swing the result.
- B Correct: without a control group there is no way to know whether people would have felt just as focused without FocusMint.
- C Correct: when participants know their treatment and rate themselves, expectations alone can change the outcome; a placebo and blinding guard against this.
- D "8 of 10" and 80% are the same information, so the format of the number does not weaken the evidence.
- E Being testable is a strength of a scientific claim, not a weakness; the problem is that this study was not a good test.
Learn this topic: How to use logic and evidence to judge a scientific claim 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 1.4 Experimental Design and Ethics · OpenStax Psychology 2e, 2.3 Analyzing Findings · OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 1.2 Data, Sampling, and Variation in Data and Sampling ·
Jamal hypothesized that bread mold grows only when bread is exposed to light. He predicted that slices kept in total darkness would show no mold. He placed 6 slices from the same loaf in identical sealed bags. Three bags went on a shelf under a lamp, and three went in a closed, lightproof box on the same shelf, at the same temperature. He checked the slices after 7 days.
Condition Slices with visible mold (out of 3) Under the lamp 3 Lightproof box 3 What is the most valid conclusion Jamal can draw from these results?
Correct answer: C
Jamal's hypothesis predicted no mold in darkness, so mold on every dark slice is a result that directly contradicts it, and one solid contradicting result is enough to reject a hypothesis. The lamp group's mold is consistent with the hypothesis but would have happened either way, so it cannot prove anything. An experiment whose results reject a hypothesis has not failed; it has done its job, and Jamal can now propose a new hypothesis.
- A Science never proves a hypothesis, and mold under the lamp was expected whether light matters or not, so it does not support the claim that mold needs light.
- B Results that contradict a prediction are useful evidence; a well-controlled test that rejects a hypothesis is a successful experiment.
- C Correct: the hypothesis predicted no mold in the dark, and mold grew there anyway, so the hypothesis is rejected.
- D Both groups had the same result, so the data show no difference that could be credited to light.
Learn this topic: How to use logic and evidence to judge a scientific claim 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Biology 2e, 1.1 The Science of Biology · OpenStax Psychology 2e, 2.1 Why Is Research Important? ·
Which statement describes an inverse relationship between two variables?
Correct answer: B
In an inverse relationship, one variable goes up while the other goes down. Boyle's law is the classic example: at constant temperature, increasing the pressure on a gas decreases its volume. In a direct relationship, such as Charles's law (volume and kelvin temperature at constant pressure), both variables rise together or fall together.
- A Volume and temperature both increase here, so this is a direct relationship (Charles's law).
- B Correct: pressure goes up while volume goes down, which is an inverse relationship (Boyle's law).
- C If one variable changes while the other stays the same, there is no relationship at all, which students sometimes confuse with an inverse one.
- D Volume and temperature both decrease here, so they move in the same direction, which is a direct relationship; falling values are not what makes a relationship inverse.
Learn this topic: How to read a trend and predict what happens next 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 9.2 Relating Pressure, Volume, Amount, and Temperature: The Ideal Gas Law · OpenStax Psychology 2e, 2.3 Analyzing Findings ·
A student hung different masses from the same spring and measured how far the spring stretched each time.
Mass (g) Stretch (cm) 0 0.0 50 2.0 100 4.0 150 6.0 200 8.0 Based on the pattern in the data, how far would the spring most likely stretch if the student hung a 125 g mass from it?
Correct answer: C
The stretch rises by 2.0 cm for every 50 g added and is 0 cm at 0 g, so it is directly proportional to the mass: 0.04 cm per gram. A 125 g mass is halfway between 100 g and 150 g, so the stretch should be halfway between 4.0 cm and 6.0 cm, which is 125 × 0.04 = 5.0 cm. This is a prediction inside the tested range (interpolation), so it is reasonable; predicting the stretch for a mass far above 200 g would be riskier.
- A 4.0 cm is the stretch for 100 g; choosing it rounds down to the nearest tested mass instead of following the pattern.
- B 2.5 cm comes from dividing 125 by 50, which treats each 50 g as 1 cm of stretch instead of the 2 cm shown in the table.
- C Correct: the stretch is 0.04 cm per gram, so 125 g gives 5.0 cm, halfway between the values for 100 g and 150 g.
- D 6.0 cm is the stretch for 150 g; choosing it rounds up to the next tested mass instead of following the pattern.
Learn this topic: How to read a trend and predict what happens next 5-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Chemistry 2e, 9.2 Relating Pressure, Volume, Amount, and Temperature: The Ideal Gas Law · OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 12.3 The Regression Equation · OpenStax Introductory Statistics 2e, 12.2 Scatter Plots · OpenStax College Algebra 2e, 4.3 Fitting Linear Models to Data · OpenStax College Algebra 2e, 5.8 Modeling Using Variation ·
A greenhouse uses an automatic cooling system. A sensor measures the air temperature and sends the reading to a controller. When the reading rises above 27 °C, the controller opens the roof vents, which lets warm air escape and lowers the temperature. When the reading drops below 27 °C, the controller closes the vents.
On a sunny afternoon, the sensor breaks and keeps reporting 20 °C no matter what the actual air temperature is. If the sun keeps heating the greenhouse, what will most likely happen?
Correct answer: D
This system is a negative feedback loop: the sensor detects a change, the controller compares the reading with the 27 °C set point, and the vents (the effector) reverse any rise. The controller can respond only to what the sensor reports. A stuck reading of 20 °C is below the set point, so the controller keeps the vents closed, and nothing counteracts the sun's heating. Because the broken sensor no longer detects the rise, the correction stops and the original change continues.
- A The controller does not try to reach the sensor's reading; it opens the vents only when the reading is above 27 °C, which never happens with a reading stuck at 20 °C.
- B This is how the loop works when every part is working; a broken sensor cuts the loop, so the controller never learns that the air is getting hotter.
- C A reading below 27 °C tells the controller to close the vents, not to open them, so this reverses the system's response.
- D Correct: the controller always sees 20 °C, so it keeps the vents closed and the trapped heat makes the temperature keep rising.
Learn this topic: How to read a trend and predict what happens next 5-minute lesson
A student wants to know whether water temperature affects how quickly a sugar cube dissolves. She fills four identical cups with 200 mL of water at 10 °C, 25 °C, 40 °C, and 55 °C. She drops one sugar cube from the same box into each cup, stirs each cup the same way, and times how many seconds it takes for the cube to dissolve completely.
What is the dependent variable in this investigation?
Correct answer: C
The dependent variable is what the researcher measures to see the effect of the change she made on purpose. Here she changes the water temperature (the independent variable) and measures the dissolving time, so dissolving time is the dependent variable. A quick check is the sentence "Does _ affect _?": "Does water temperature affect dissolving time?" puts the independent variable first and the dependent variable second.
- A Water temperature is what the student changes on purpose, so it is the independent variable, not the dependent one.
- B The 200 mL volume is kept the same in every cup, so it is a controlled variable.
- C Correct: dissolving time is what the student measures to see whether temperature has an effect.
- D The 10 °C cup is one of the conditions being compared, not a variable; confusing a group or trial with a variable is a common mistake.
Learn this topic: How to read an experiment: variables, controls and valid conclusions 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Psychology 2e, 2.3 Analyzing Findings · OpenStax Concepts of Biology, 1.2 The Process of Science · NASA GeneLab, Bioinformatics Bite #4: Intro to Experimental Design (worksheet) ·
Which of the following is a complete sentence?
Correct answer: B
A complete sentence needs at least one independent clause: a subject plus a main verb that together express a complete thought. A clause that starts with a dependent marker such as because, although, or when cannot stand alone unless it is attached to an independent clause. Long word groups can still be fragments if they lack a main verb, and an -ing phrase without a subject and a helping verb is not a main clause.
- A Fragment: because turns the whole word group into a dependent clause, and no independent clause follows to complete the thought.
- B Correct: the dependent clause beginning with although is joined by a comma to an independent clause (the transport team moved every patient on time).
- C Fragment: pumps has no main verb; ordered belongs to the clause that the hospital ordered, which only describes the pumps.
- D Fragment: the -ing phrase has no subject and no main verb, so it never says who checks or what happens.
Learn this topic: How to build and fix a complete sentence 6-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Sentence Fragments · Purdue OWL, Identifying Independent and Dependent Clauses ·
Which of the following words is spelled correctly?
Correct answer: B
When ie or ei makes the long-e sound (as in bee), write ie, except right after c, where the spelling is ei. Conceive has the long-e sound right after c, so it is spelled ei. Field, believe and retrieve have the same sound with no c in front, so they all take ie.
- A Field has the long-e sound and no c before it, so it takes ie, not ei.
- B Correct: the long-e sound comes right after c, so the spelling is ei.
- C Believe has the long-e sound after l, not c, so it takes ie.
- D Retrieve has the long-e sound after r, not c, so it takes ie.
Learn this topic: How to spell by rule instead of by eye 6-minute lesson
Source: University of Arkansas at Little Rock Writing Center, Spelling ·
Which of the following sentences use the correct word? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C
Swap each sound-alike word for its meaning to test it. Effect is usually a noun meaning a result, and affect is usually a verb meaning to influence. It's always means it is or it has, their means belonging to them, and than is used for comparisons while then refers to time.
- A Correct: effect is a noun here (a positive result), so the noun spelling is right.
- B It's means it is, and the hospital posted it is visiting hours makes no sense; the possessive its is needed.
- C Correct: their means belonging to them, and the backpacks belong to the students.
- D This sentence compares two shifts, so it needs than; then refers to time.
- E The word is the action (to influence), so it should be the verb affect.
Learn this topic: How to spell by rule instead of by eye 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Words Commonly Confused) · Santa Clara University Writing Center, Affect and Effect ·
A student wrote this sentence: "The nurses said there planing to recieve the new supplys before the meeting." Which revision corrects every spelling error?
Correct answer: B
The sentence has four errors, so check every word in each option. They're (they are) fits because the nurses said they are planning. Plan has one vowel and one final consonant, so it doubles before -ing (planning); receive has the long-e sound after c, so it is spelled ei; and supply ends in consonant + y, so its plural is supplies.
- A Their means belonging to them; the sentence needs they're, meaning they are.
- B Correct: they're, planning, receive and supplies are all spelled correctly.
- C Plan is a one-syllable word ending in one vowel and one consonant, so the n doubles before -ing: planning.
- D After c, the long-e sound is spelled ei, so the correct spelling is receive.
Learn this topic: How to spell by rule instead of by eye 6-minute lesson
Source: University of Arkansas at Little Rock Writing Center, Spelling · Pasco-Hernando State College Writing Center, Plurals · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Words Commonly Confused) ·
Which of the following sentences correctly shows that the lounge is shared by all of the nurses on the unit?
Correct answer: C
To make a plural noun that already ends in s possessive, add only an apostrophe after the s: nurses'. A singular owner adds 's (one nurse's lounge), and a plural that does not end in s, such as children, adds 's (children's). Check first whether the owner is one person or many.
- A Nurse's shows a single owner, but the lounge belongs to many nurses.
- B Without an apostrophe, nurses is a plain plural and does not show ownership.
- C Correct: nurses is a plural ending in s, so it takes only an apostrophe after the s.
- D A plural ending in s does not take an extra 's; nurses's adds a letter that is not needed.
Learn this topic: How to punctuate by rule, not by pause 6-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, How to Use the Apostrophe · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Punctuation) ·
Which of the following sentences are punctuated correctly? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C
When and, but, so or another coordinating conjunction joins two parts of a sentence, put a comma before it only if both parts are independent clauses, each with its own subject. Put a comma after an introductory dependent clause. A comma alone cannot join two independent clauses, and a nonessential clause needs a comma on both sides.
- A Correct: 'she labeled the new bins' has its own subject, so the comma before and joins two independent clauses.
- B 'Labeled the new bins' has no subject of its own; it shares the subject aide, so no comma belongs before and.
- C Correct: the sentence opens with a dependent clause starting with because, so a comma follows it.
- D Both halves are independent clauses joined only by a comma, which is a comma splice.
- E The nonessential clause 'which is next to the elevator' needs a closing comma after elevator.
Learn this topic: How to punctuate by rule, not by pause 6-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Extended Rules for Using Commas · Purdue OWL, Identifying Independent and Dependent Clauses · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Punctuation) ·
Which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly in standard US English?
Correct answer: C
A question mark goes inside the closing quotation mark only when the quoted words are themselves a question; when the whole sentence is the question, it goes outside. Periods and commas go inside the closing quotation mark in US English. First ask, "Who is asking the question, the speaker being quoted or the writer?"
- A The quoted words are a statement, not a question, so the question mark belongs outside the quotation marks.
- B The quoted words are the patient's own question, so the question mark belongs inside the quotation marks.
- C Correct: the whole sentence is the question while the quoted words are a statement, so the question mark goes outside.
- D The quoted words are a question and need a question mark inside; also, in US English a period would go inside, not outside.
Learn this topic: How to punctuate by rule, not by pause 6-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Additional Punctuation Rules When Using Quotation Marks · Purdue OWL, Extended Rules for Using Commas · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Punctuation) ·
Which type of sentence is the following? "The pharmacist counted the tablets, and the technician printed the label."
Correct answer: C
Count the clauses. "The pharmacist counted the tablets" and "the technician printed the label" each have their own subject and verb and can stand alone, and there is no dependent clause. Two independent clauses joined by a comma and and make a compound sentence.
- A A simple sentence has only one independent clause; this one has two, each with its own subject.
- B A complex sentence needs a dependent clause, but neither clause starts with a dependent marker such as because or when.
- C Correct: two independent clauses are joined by a comma and the conjunction and, with no dependent clause.
- D A compound-complex sentence also needs at least one dependent clause, and this sentence has none.
Learn this topic: How to build and fix a complete sentence 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Clear and Effective Sentences; Sentence Errors) · Purdue OWL, Punctuation in Types of Sentences ·
Which revision corrects the error in the following sentence? "The flu clinic opened at 8 a.m., more than fifty people were already waiting outside."
Correct answer: D
The original is a comma splice: two independent clauses joined by only a comma. One correct fix is to make one clause dependent by adding a marker word such as when, which leaves a single independent clause after the comma. Other correct fixes are a period, a semicolon, or a comma plus a conjunction such as and or so.
- A However is not a coordinating conjunction, so joining the clauses with commas around it is still a comma splice; it needs a semicolon before it.
- B The period fixes the splice but leaves 'Because more than fifty people were already waiting outside' as a fragment.
- C Removing the comma leaves two independent clauses with nothing between them, which is a run-on (fused sentence).
- D Correct: when turns the first clause into a dependent clause, so the sentence has one independent clause and the comma after the introductory clause is correct.
Learn this topic: How to build and fix a complete sentence 6-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Run-ons, Comma Splices, Fused Sentences · Purdue OWL, Sentence Fragments · Purdue OWL, Identifying Independent and Dependent Clauses ·
Arrange the following sentences in this order: simple, compound, complex, compound-complex.
- Although the storm knocked out power, the backup lights came on, and the staff kept working.
- The respiratory therapist and the student checked every oxygen tank and logged the results before the end of the shift.
- The inspector arrived early, so the manager moved the meeting to the morning.
- The volunteers stayed in the lobby until the last family had left.
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: The respiratory therapist and the student checked every oxygen tank and logged the results before the end of the shift. → The inspector arrived early, so the manager moved the meeting to the morning. → The volunteers stayed in the lobby until the last family had left. → Although the storm knocked out power, the backup lights came on, and the staff kept working.
Classify each sentence by counting clauses, not by its length. Choice b is long but has one subject-verb core (therapist and student / checked and logged), so it is simple. Choice c joins two independent clauses with so (compound), choice d adds the dependent clause 'until the last family had left' to one independent clause (complex), and choice a has one dependent clause plus two independent clauses (compound-complex).
- Although the storm knocked out power, the backup lights came on, and the staff kept working. Compound-complex: 'Although the storm knocked out power' is dependent, and 'the backup lights came on' and 'the staff kept working' are two independent clauses.
- The respiratory therapist and the student checked every oxygen tank and logged the results before the end of the shift. Simple: a compound subject and a compound verb still form only one independent clause, despite the sentence's length.
- The inspector arrived early, so the manager moved the meeting to the morning. Compound: two independent clauses joined by a comma and the conjunction so, with no dependent clause.
- The volunteers stayed in the lobby until the last family had left. Complex: one independent clause plus the dependent clause 'until the last family had left,' which begins with the marker until.
Learn this topic: How to build and fix a complete sentence 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Clear and Effective Sentences; Sentence Errors) · Purdue OWL, Punctuation in Types of Sentences · Purdue OWL, Identifying Independent and Dependent Clauses · UNC Writing Center, Sentence Patterns ·
Which of the following sentences uses who or whom correctly in formal writing?
Correct answer: C
Use who where he or she would fit (a subject) and whom where him or her would fit (an object of a verb or preposition). Answering the question with he or him is a quick test: you would send the forms to him, so whom is correct after the preposition to. In choice B, we thanked him, so formal writing needs whom; in choices A and D, he is covering and he fixed, so who is needed.
- A Who is needed because the pronoun is the subject of is covering (he is covering, not him is covering).
- B In formal writing this needs whom, because the pronoun is the object of thanked (we thanked him); who here is the casual spoken form.
- C Correct: whom is the object of the preposition to (send the forms to him).
- D Who is needed because the pronoun is the subject of fixed (he fixed the printer); whom wrongly sounds more formal here.
Learn this topic: How to fix unclear sentences with rules, not by ear 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Pronoun Case: Who or Whom) · Purdue OWL, Pronoun Case ·
Which of the following sentences contain a dangling or misplaced modifier? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C, E
A modifier describes whatever word sits right next to it. An opening phrase such as Walking into the lobby or To pass the exam must be followed by the person or thing that does that action; if it is not, the modifier dangles. A phrase placed next to the wrong noun, such as that hummed loudly after break room, is misplaced. Fix these by naming the doer right after the opening phrase or by moving the phrase beside the word it describes.
- A Dangling: the mural cannot walk into the lobby; the doer, Darius, should follow the comma (Walking into the lobby, Darius noticed the new mural).
- B Correct as written: Lena is the one who finished her shift, and her name comes right after the opening phrase.
- C Misplaced: that hummed loudly sits next to break room, so it seems to describe the room instead of the refrigerator.
- D Correct as written: the dog is the one covered in mud, and dog comes right after the opening phrase, even though the sentence is in passive voice.
- E Dangling: a study schedule cannot pass an exam, and no person who wants to pass is named (To pass the exam, you need a study schedule).
Learn this topic: How to fix unclear sentences with rules, not by ear 6-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Dangling Modifiers and How To Correct Them · Blinn College Writing Centers, Misplaced, Interrupting, and Dangling Modifiers ·
Which of the following sentences uses correct subject-verb agreement?
Correct answer: B
Find the true subject before choosing the verb. Phrases such as of the patient survey or of the new employees do not contain the subject here, each is singular, and in a there is/there are sentence the subject comes after the verb. With neither/nor, the verb agrees with the subject closer to it, so supervisor (singular) takes was, even though the sentence may sound odd.
- A The subject is results (plural), so the verb should be were; survey is inside the of phrase and is not the subject.
- B Correct: with neither/nor, the verb agrees with the closer subject, supervisor, which is singular, so was is right.
- C Each is singular, so the verb should be has; employees is inside the of phrase.
- D The subject wheelchairs comes after the verb and is plural, so it should be There are; There's means There is.
Learn this topic: How to fix unclear sentences with rules, not by ear 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Subject-Verb Agreement) · Purdue OWL, Making Subjects and Verbs Agree ·
Which of the following sentences is written in the active voice?
Correct answer: A
In the active voice, the subject performs the action. In the passive voice, a form of be plus a past participle (was reorganized, has been reorganized, is being reorganized) puts the receiver of the action first, and the doer appears in a by phrase or not at all. The night staff reorganized the supply closet names the doer as the subject, so it is active.
- A Correct: the subject, the night staff, performs the action of the verb reorganized.
- B Passive: has been reorganized is a form of be plus a past participle, and the doer is not named at all.
- C Passive: was plus the past participle reorganized makes the closet the subject, and the doer moves to a by phrase.
- D Passive: is being reorganized is still a form of be plus a past participle, even though it describes something happening now.
Learn this topic: How to choose words that fit the reader and the purpose 6-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Active and Passive Voice · UNC Writing Center, Passive Voice ·
A hospital newsletter contains this sentence: "Due to the fact that the main elevator is currently out of order at this point in time, all visitors are asked to make use of the stairs or the elevator located in the east wing." Which revision is most concise while keeping all of the original information?
Correct answer: D
Concise writing removes wasted words but keeps every idea the reader needs. Due to the fact that can become because, currently and at this point in time repeat the present tense of is, and make use of can become use. The best revision still includes the reason, both options, and the request.
- A It is short, but it drops the east wing elevator, which visitors need to know about.
- B It keeps the information but still uses the wordy phrase due to the fact that, so it is not the most concise.
- C It drops the reason that the main elevator is out of order, so information is lost.
- D Correct: it replaces the wordy phrases and keeps the reason, the request and both options.
Learn this topic: How to choose words that fit the reader and the purpose 6-minute lesson
Source: UNC Writing Center, Conciseness · Purdue OWL, Eliminating Words ·
Dana is writing a short notice for a hospital newsletter that patients and visitors read. The notice explains a new parking payment system. Which of the following sentences are appropriate for this audience and purpose? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, D, E
Writing for the general public should be clear, polite and plain. Slang and hype sound unprofessional in a hospital newsletter, and technical abbreviations that readers do not know should be replaced or explained. Sentences that give useful facts in everyday words fit both the audience and the informative purpose.
- A Appropriate: it gives the date and payment options in plain, polite language.
- B Not appropriate: total game changer and the exclamation are slang and hype, too casual for an informative hospital notice.
- C Not appropriate: LPR, ingress and PAS are unexplained jargon that most patients and visitors would not understand.
- D Appropriate: it tells readers where to get help in clear, friendly wording.
- E Appropriate: it states a useful fact plainly and briefly.
Learn this topic: How to choose words that fit the reader and the purpose 6-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Levels of Formality · Purdue OWL, Group Jargon · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Words and Language: Slang, Technical Expressions) ·
__ In March, hand sanitizer pumps were placed at the entrance to every hallway. Signs reminding staff to clean their hands were also posted above each sink. In addition, unit managers began making short, unannounced checks each week. By June, managers were seeing staff clean their hands before patient contact more often on every floor.
Which of the following would be the best topic sentence for the paragraph?
Correct answer: B
A topic sentence states the paragraph's main idea, and every other sentence should support it. Here the details describe three actions the hospital took (pumps, signs and spot checks) and the result. The best topic sentence covers all of those details without being so broad that it could introduce a whole book.
- A Too broad: it could open a whole textbook and does not point to the specific steps this hospital took.
- B Correct: the controlling idea, several steps to improve hand cleaning, covers every detail in the paragraph.
- C Too narrow and off target: it is a small detail about refilling that no other sentence supports.
- D Off-topic: staff preferences are not discussed anywhere in the paragraph.
Learn this topic: How to build and fix a well-organized paragraph 6-minute lesson
Source: Rochester Institute of Technology, NTID Science and Engineering Writing, Paragraph Structure · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Paragraphs and Transitions) ·
Arrange the following sentences in the order that creates the most logical, well-organized paragraph.
- The item is then sealed in a labeled bag and taken to the security office.
- Lakeside Clinic follows a simple process for items that patients leave behind.
- If no one claims the item by the end of that period, it is donated to a local charity.
- First, the staff member who finds an item writes down where and when it was found.
- Security keeps each bag for 30 days and checks it against calls from patients who report missing belongings.
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: Lakeside Clinic follows a simple process for items that patients leave behind. → First, the staff member who finds an item writes down where and when it was found. → The item is then sealed in a labeled bag and taken to the security office. → Security keeps each bag for 30 days and checks it against calls from patients who report missing belongings. → If no one claims the item by the end of that period, it is donated to a local charity.
Start with the sentence that makes sense with nothing before it: the topic sentence that names the process. Then follow time order and the clue words. First marks the first step, then marks the next one, the 30-day holding period comes next, and that period in the last sentence points back to the 30 days.
- The item is then sealed in a labeled bag and taken to the security office. Comes third: then and the item show it continues from the finding step.
- Lakeside Clinic follows a simple process for items that patients leave behind. Comes first: it is the topic sentence that introduces the whole process and needs nothing before it.
- If no one claims the item by the end of that period, it is donated to a local charity. Comes last: that period points back to the 30 days, and donating the item ends the process.
- First, the staff member who finds an item writes down where and when it was found. Comes second: First signals the opening step.
- Security keeps each bag for 30 days and checks it against calls from patients who report missing belongings. Comes fourth: it describes what security does with the bag after it arrives.
Learn this topic: How to build and fix a well-organized paragraph 6-minute lesson
Source: Rochester Institute of Technology, NTID Science and Engineering Writing, Paragraph Structure · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 10.6 Editing Focus: Paragraphs and Transitions ·
Greenfield Medical Center started a free lunchtime walking group for employees last year. The group meets three days a week and follows a marked route around the campus. Because the time is already set aside, staff members find it easier to stay active on busy workdays. Many walkers also say that the short break helps them return to their units feeling more focused. __
Which of the following would be the most effective concluding sentence for the paragraph?
Correct answer: A
A concluding sentence wraps up the paragraph's main idea, often by summing up its key points in new words, without starting a new topic. This paragraph makes two points about the walking group: it helps busy staff stay active, and it helps them feel more focused. The best conclusion ties both points back to the walking group.
- A Correct: it restates the main idea in fresh words and sums up both benefits the paragraph describes.
- B This opens a new topic, the cafeteria menu, that the paragraph never discusses.
- C The phrase In conclusion is tempting, but the claim is far too broad and extreme for a paragraph about one walking group.
- D This is a supporting detail about the route, not a sentence that sums up the paragraph.
Learn this topic: How to build and fix a well-organized paragraph 6-minute lesson
Source: Rochester Institute of Technology, NTID Science and Engineering Writing, Paragraph Structure · OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, Handbook (Paragraphs and Transitions) ·
Jordan is writing a short report about hand-hygiene posters at a community clinic. Arrange the following tasks in the order a writer would typically complete them in the writing process.
- Fix two misspelled words and add a missing comma.
- Write a first draft of the paragraphs from the outline.
- Brainstorm a list of ideas and sketch a rough outline.
- Replace wordy phrases such as "at this point in time" with "now."
- Move the strongest example to the end and cut an off-topic paragraph.
Use the arrows to put the items in the correct order.
Correct answer: Brainstorm a list of ideas and sketch a rough outline. → Write a first draft of the paragraphs from the outline. → Move the strongest example to the end and cut an off-topic paragraph. → Replace wordy phrases such as "at this point in time" with "now." → Fix two misspelled words and add a missing comma.
The writing process starts with prewriting (brainstorming and outlining), then drafting. Revising comes next and handles big-picture concerns such as organization and which content stays. Editing then improves sentences, and proofreading is the final pass for spelling and punctuation errors. Writers may loop back, but big changes come before small ones so that time is not spent polishing sentences that will be cut.
- Fix two misspelled words and add a missing comma. Fixing spelling and a comma is proofreading, the final surface check, so it goes last.
- Write a first draft of the paragraphs from the outline. Drafting turns the outline into paragraphs, so it comes second, right after prewriting.
- Brainstorm a list of ideas and sketch a rough outline. Brainstorming and outlining are prewriting, the first stage of the process.
- Replace wordy phrases such as "at this point in time" with "now." Cutting wordy phrases is sentence-level editing, which follows revising and comes before proofreading.
- Move the strongest example to the end and cut an off-topic paragraph. Reordering examples and cutting an off-topic paragraph are big-picture revisions, so they come right after drafting.
Learn this topic: How the writing process works, from first idea to final check 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 10.5 Writing Process: Creating a Position Argument · UNC Writing Center, Editing and Proofreading · Purdue OWL, Higher Order Concerns (HOCs) and Lower Order Concerns (LOCs) ·
While researching a paper, Dante reads an article in which a public health researcher reports a finding from her own study of teenagers' sleep. In his paper, Dante restates the finding entirely in his own words but does not name the researcher or the article. Which statement best describes what Dante did?
Correct answer: B
Plagiarism includes using another person's idea or finding without credit, even when the wording is your own. Quotations, paraphrases and summaries all need a citation; only quotations also need quotation marks. Common knowledge, such as well-known dates or general facts found in many sources, is the exception, and one researcher's study finding is not common knowledge.
- A Changing the words does not make the idea his; a paraphrase without credit is still plagiarism.
- B Correct: the finding belongs to the researcher, so his paraphrase must name the source.
- C A specific finding from one researcher's study is not common knowledge, so it must be cited.
- D A paraphrase needs a citation, not quotation marks; quotation marks are only for exact words.
Learn this topic: How the writing process works, from first idea to final check 6-minute lesson
Source: OpenStax Writing Guide with Handbook, 13.6 Spotlight on … Ethical Research · Purdue OWL, Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing ·
A student wrote this sentence in a report: "Due to the fact that the new scheduling software was really confusing to use, many of the nurses on the night shift, who work at night, kept asking the manager questions about it." Which revision is the most concise while keeping the meaning and remaining grammatically correct?
Correct answer: C
The best revision of a sentence is grammatically correct, keeps every important part of the meaning, and removes extra words. Here, "due to the fact that" becomes "because," the filler word "really" goes, and "night shift, who work at night" says the same thing twice. Check choices in this order: throw out grammar errors, throw out choices that drop meaning, then pick the most concise of what is left.
- A This is a comma splice: two complete sentences are joined with only a comma.
- B It is short and correct, but it drops the reason the nurses asked questions, so the meaning changes.
- C Correct: it keeps the cause and the result, fixes the wordiness, and is a complete, correctly punctuated sentence.
- D It keeps the filler "really" and the redundant "who work at night on the night shift," and it drops "many" and "new scheduling."
Learn this topic: How the writing process works, from first idea to final check 6-minute lesson
Source: Purdue OWL, Conciseness: Eliminating Words · UNC Writing Center, Fragments and Run-ons · UNC Writing Center, Editing and Proofreading · Purdue OWL, Steps for Revising Your Paper ·
A health brochure explains hepatitis. Using the word parts hepat- and -itis, what does hepatitis mean?
Correct answer: B
The root hepat- means liver, and the suffix -itis means inflammation, so hepatitis is inflammation of the liver. To decode a medical term, define the suffix first (what kind of condition), then the root (which body part). Enlargement would be -megaly, removal would be -ectomy, and the kidney root is nephr- or ren-.
- A Enlargement is the suffix -megaly (as in hepatomegaly), not -itis.
- B Correct: hepat- means liver and -itis means inflammation.
- C Surgical removal is the suffix -ectomy, not -itis.
- D The kidney root is nephr- or ren-; hepat- refers to the liver.
Learn this topic: How to decode a word from its roots, prefixes and suffixes 5-minute lesson
Source: MedlinePlus, Appendix A: Word Parts and What They Mean · MedlinePlus, Hepatitis ·
Which of the following terms contain a prefix that means "under" or "below normal"? Select all that apply.
Select all that apply.
Correct answer: A, C, E
The prefixes hypo- (under, deficient) and sub- (under) both carry the idea of "under." Hypoglycemia is low blood sugar, hypothermia is low body heat (therm- means heat), and subcutaneous means under the skin (cutane means skin). Hyper- is the opposite of hypo-, meaning above or excessive, and post- means after.
- A Correct: hypo- means under or deficient; hypoglycemia is low blood sugar.
- B Hyper- means above or excessive, the opposite of hypo-.
- C Correct: sub- means under; subcutaneous means under the skin.
- D Post- means after, as in after an operation; it does not mean under.
- E Correct: hypo- means under, and therm- means heat, so hypothermia is below-normal body heat.
Learn this topic: How to decode a word from its roots, prefixes and suffixes 5-minute lesson
Source: MedlinePlus, Appendix A: Word Parts and What They Mean · MedlinePlus, Understanding Medical Words Tutorial, Introduction Part 2 ·
A student reads the term pericarditis in an anatomy textbook. Based on its word parts, which is the best meaning of pericarditis?
Correct answer: C
Pericarditis has three parts: the prefix peri- (around), the root card (heart) and the suffix -itis (inflammation). Put together, it means inflammation of the covering around the heart, the pericardium. When a word has a prefix, root and suffix, define each part before combining, and watch for look-alike prefixes such as peri- (around) and endo- (within).
- A The inner lining would use endo- (within); peri- means around.
- B Surgical removal is the suffix -ectomy; -itis means inflammation.
- C Correct: peri- (around) + card (heart) + -itis (inflammation).
- D Enlargement is -megaly and the muscle root is my- or myo-; neither appears in pericarditis.
Learn this topic: How to decode a word from its roots, prefixes and suffixes 5-minute lesson
Source: NCI SEER Training, Formation of Medical Terms · MedlinePlus, Appendix A: Word Parts and What They Mean · MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, Pericarditis ·
Which of the following sentences uses the correct word?
Correct answer: C
Precede means to come before, so a briefing that comes before a session correctly precedes it. Proceed means to go forward or continue, averse means opposed to, and proscribe means to forbid. With look-alike words, decide by meaning, not by sound: say the plain meaning in the sentence and see if it fits.
- A Staff move forward to the exit, so the word should be proceed, not precede.
- B A person who dislikes or opposes something is averse to it; adverse means harmful, as in adverse effects.
- C Correct: precede means to come before, which is what the briefing does.
- D The rule forbids smoking, so the word should be proscribes; prescribes means to set a rule or recommend.
Learn this topic: How to work out a word's meaning and avoid look-alike word mix-ups 6-minute lesson
Source: St. Louis Community College Writing Center, Commonly Confused Words · Towson University Online Writing Support, Commonly Confused Words: prescribe / proscribe · American Heritage Dictionary, precede · American Heritage Dictionary, proceed · American Heritage Dictionary, adverse · American Heritage Dictionary, averse ·
Read the sentence: "To mitigate the risk of falls, the unit added grab bars, brighter night-lights and nonslip socks." Which of the following is the meaning of mitigate as used in the sentence?
Correct answer: B
The examples after the comma, grab bars, brighter lights and nonslip socks, are all changes that make falls less likely. That example clue shows that mitigate means to make something less harmful or less severe. Predict the meaning from the clue first, then plug each choice into the sentence to check.
- A Grab bars and night-lights do not measure risk; they reduce it.
- B Correct: the safety changes make falls less likely, so mitigate means to lessen.
- C This is the opposite meaning; no one adds safety equipment to increase the risk of falls.
- D The unit took action on the risk, which is the opposite of ignoring it.
Learn this topic: How to work out a word's meaning and avoid look-alike word mix-ups 6-minute lesson
Source: American Heritage Dictionary, mitigate · Lumen Learning Writing Skills Lab, Read Strategically: Context Clues ·
Asthma is a long-term lung condition. When it acts up, the tubes that carry air into and out of the lungs swell and tighten, leaving less room for air to move. A person may wheeze, cough, feel a squeezing in the chest or struggle to catch a breath. How strongly these signs show up can differ a great deal from one day to the next. On a calm, mild day, a person with asthma might have no trouble at all. On another day, the same person may begin wheezing after a short walk.
Much of this difference comes from triggers, the things that set off symptoms or make them stronger. Some triggers are allergens, substances that cause an allergic reaction, like pollen, mold and dust mites. Others have nothing to do with allergies, such as cigarette smoke, polluted outdoor air, a cold or the flu, and even a breath of chilly air. For someone whose airways are already irritated, a single cold, windy morning can exacerbate symptoms, turning an occasional mild cough into steady wheezing and a tight chest. An episode in which symptoms climb well above a person's usual level is known as an asthma attack, or flare-up.
No two people react to exactly the same list of triggers, and one person's list may shift as the years pass. Learning which triggers matter for a particular person, and finding ways to avoid them, is a large part of managing the condition.
As used in the second paragraph, which of the following is the meaning of exacerbate?
Correct answer: B
The sentence says the airways are already irritated and that the cold morning turns an occasional mild cough into steady wheezing. Something that takes an existing problem and makes it more severe exacerbates it, so exacerbate means to make worse. The tempting wrong answer is "to cause," but the passage shows the symptoms were already there; the cold air made them worse rather than starting them.
- A The passage says the airways were already irritated and a mild cough already existed, so the symptoms were not caused for the first time.
- B Correct: the cold air turns a mild cough into steady wheezing, which means it makes existing symptoms worse.
- C This is the opposite meaning; the symptoms become more severe, not milder.
- D Nothing in the sentence is about noticing or finding symptoms; it describes them getting worse.
Learn this topic: How to work out a word's meaning and avoid look-alike word mix-ups 6-minute lesson
Source: American Heritage Dictionary, exacerbate · MedlinePlus, Asthma ·
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| Program | TEAS minimum |
|---|---|
| University of Arizona, MS-MEPN | 75% combined score |
| CSU San Marcos, Traditional BSN transfer (2027–2028) | 71.0% composite |
| Moorpark College, ADN | 62% recommended; lower scores need remediation |
| Minnesota State Moorhead, BSN (2027) | 58.7% composite and 41.3% science |
ATI's levels: Proficient is 58.7–79.3%, Advanced is 80.0–91.3%.
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TEAS 7 format
| Section | Questions (scored) | Time |
|---|---|---|
| Reading | 45 (39) | 55 min |
| Math | 38 (34) | 57 min |
| Science | 50 (44) | 60 min |
| English and Language Usage | 37 (33) | 37 min |
| Total | 170 (150) | 209 min |
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Sources (checked October 15, 2026)
- ATI Help, TEAS content areas
- ATI Help, TEAS time limits
- ATI Help, How is the ATI TEAS Test Scored?
- ATI Help, Can I use a calculator on the ATI TEAS?
- University of Arizona College of Nursing, ATI TEAS Exam
- CSU San Marcos, TBSN 2027–2028 Supplemental Criteria (PDF)
- Moorpark College, ATI TEAS information
- Minnesota State University Moorhead, BSN admission requirements