Free PTCB Medications practice test
31 original Medications questions on generic/brand names and drug classes, therapeutic duplications, drug interactions and contraindications, strengths, dosage forms, routes and administration, side effects, adverse effects and allergies, indications, drug stability, storage of medications.
- Practice mode is free; timed exam mode at the real PTCE pace comes with full access.
- Every answer has an explanation and a source.
- Federal law only.
PTCB Medications practice test
- 31 questions
- Medications
- 43 min in exam mode
- Practice mode, no timer
A short set from this test. We don't have free questions on that topic here yet, so this set mixes topics. Sets on a single topic are included with full access, so this set mixes topics. Take the full test instead
Or take all 31 questions:
Exam mode, with a timer like test day, is included with full access. See plans. Practice mode is free.
·
Questions are original practice items written to the published exam content, not real exam questions.
A prescription is written for Lipitor 20 mg tablets. Which generic drug does Lipitor contain?
Correct answer: B
Lipitor is the brand name for atorvastatin calcium, an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin). Simvastatin (Zocor) and rosuvastatin (Crestor) are other statins, so the shared "-vastatin" ending tells you the class but not the exact drug. Learn each brand with its own generic name.
- A Simvastatin is a statin too, but its brand name is Zocor, not Lipitor.
- B Correct: the Lipitor label lists atorvastatin calcium as the active ingredient.
- C Rosuvastatin is the statin sold as Crestor, so it is a same-class mix-up.
- D Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor (Zestril); it is not a statin and has no link to Lipitor.
Learn this topic: Brand names, generic names and drug classes: how to match them fast 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: LIPITOR (atorvastatin calcium) tablets, label · DailyMed: ZOCOR (simvastatin) tablets, label · DailyMed: CRESTOR (rosuvastatin) tablets, label ·
Losartan (Cozaar) is on a patient's profile. In which drug class does its labeling place losartan?
Correct answer: C
The Cozaar label calls losartan an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). The WHO naming stem "-sartan" marks angiotensin II receptor antagonists, so valsartan (Diovan) belongs to the same class. ACE inhibitors end in "-pril" instead.
- A ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril end in "-pril"; losartan blocks the angiotensin II receptor instead.
- B Beta blockers usually end in "-olol" (for example, metoprolol), not "-sartan".
- C Correct: the Cozaar label states that losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB).
- D Calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine end in "-dipine", not "-sartan".
Learn this topic: Brand names, generic names and drug classes: how to match them fast 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: COZAAR (losartan potassium) tablets, label · WHO: The use of stems in the selection of International Nonproprietary Names (INN), 2018 · DailyMed: DIOVAN (valsartan) tablets, label ·
A new technician is grouping drugs by their name endings. Which drug belongs to a DIFFERENT therapeutic class from the other three?
Correct answer: B
Omeprazole (Prilosec), pantoprazole (Protonix) and esomeprazole (Nexium) are proton pump inhibitors, and "-prazole" is the stem for these antiulcer drugs. Aripiprazole (Abilify) ends in "-piprazole", a separate stem for psychotropic drugs, and its label calls it an atypical antipsychotic. Always check the whole stem and the label, not just the last few letters.
- A Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor, the same class as pantoprazole and esomeprazole.
- B Correct: aripiprazole (Abilify) is an atypical antipsychotic; "-piprazole" is a different stem from the PPI stem "-prazole".
- C Pantoprazole (Protonix) is a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole and esomeprazole.
- D Esomeprazole (Nexium) is a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole and pantoprazole.
Learn this topic: Brand names, generic names and drug classes: how to match them fast 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: PRILOSEC (omeprazole magnesium) delayed-release oral suspension, label · DailyMed: PROTONIX (pantoprazole sodium) delayed-release tablets and oral suspension, label · DailyMed: NEXIUM (esomeprazole magnesium) delayed-release capsules, label · DailyMed: ABILIFY (aripiprazole) tablets, label · WHO: The use of stems in the selection of International Nonproprietary Names (INN), 2018 ·
Which brand name, generic name and drug class are all matched correctly?
Correct answer: D
Norvasc is amlodipine, and its label calls it a calcium channel blocker. Toprol-XL (metoprolol succinate) is a beta-adrenergic blocker, Zestril (lisinopril) is an ACE inhibitor, and Plavix (clopidogrel) is a P2Y12 platelet inhibitor. On brand–generic–class items, check all three parts, because a distractor often gets two right and one wrong.
- A The brand and generic match, but metoprolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker, not an ACE inhibitor.
- B The brand and generic match, but lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor; ARBs end in "-sartan".
- C The brand and generic match, but clopidogrel is a P2Y12 platelet inhibitor; apixaban and rivaroxaban are factor Xa inhibitors.
- D Correct: the Norvasc label identifies amlodipine as a calcium channel blocker.
Learn this topic: Brand names, generic names and drug classes: how to match them fast 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: NORVASC (amlodipine besylate) tablets, label · DailyMed: TOPROL-XL (metoprolol succinate) extended-release tablets, label · DailyMed: ZESTRIL (lisinopril) tablets, label · DailyMed: PLAVIX (clopidogrel) tablets, label ·
Which description best matches the term therapeutic duplication?
Correct answer: D
Federal Medicaid drug-review rules define therapeutic duplication as prescribing and dispensing two or more drugs from the same therapeutic class so that the combined dose risks harm or adds cost without added benefit. The same rule lists drug–drug interactions, drug–disease contraindications and incorrect dosage as separate problems. Pharmacy software screens for all of them before a prescription is filled.
- A This describes a drug–drug interaction, a separate drug-review problem.
- B This describes a drug–disease contraindication, not a duplication.
- C This describes an incorrect drug dosage, a separate drug-review problem.
- D Correct: same-class drugs taken together are the definition of therapeutic duplication.
Learn this topic: Therapeutic duplication: when two prescriptions do the same job 5-minute lesson
A patient's profile shows omeprazole 20 mg daily filled last week. A different prescriber now sends pantoprazole 40 mg daily. What type of drug therapy problem should this raise?
Correct answer: A
Omeprazole (Prilosec) and pantoprazole (Protonix) are both proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), so taking them together is a same-class duplication. Prescriptions from different prescribers are a common way duplications reach the pharmacy. The technician lets the pharmacist review the alert rather than filling both.
- A Correct: both drugs are proton pump inhibitors, so this is a same-class duplication.
- B No allergy is described; the problem is two drugs from one class.
- C No disease affected by the drug is described; the issue is two PPIs.
- D Nothing suggests the length of therapy is wrong; the problem is two drugs from one class.
Learn this topic: Therapeutic duplication: when two prescriptions do the same job 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: PRILOSEC (omeprazole magnesium) delayed-release oral suspension, label · DailyMed: PROTONIX (pantoprazole sodium) delayed-release tablets and oral suspension, label · eCFR: 42 CFR 456.705 Prospective drug review ·
A customer picks up a new prescription for Percocet (oxycodone and acetaminophen) and also brings Tylenol Extra Strength to the register. What should the technician do?
Correct answer: B
Percocet and Tylenol both contain acetaminophen, and the Tylenol Drug Facts label says not to use it with any other acetaminophen-containing drug, prescription or nonprescription. The same label warns that severe liver damage may occur above 4,000 mg in 24 hours, and the FDA notes that using more than one acetaminophen product at a time can lead to taking too much. Spotting the overlap is the technician's job; advising the patient is the pharmacist's.
- A The Tylenol label says not to combine it with any other acetaminophen product, prescription or nonprescription.
- B Correct: duplicate acetaminophen is a pharmacist issue, and the technician should flag it.
- C Dosing advice is counseling, which belongs to the pharmacist; timing does not remove the overlap.
- D Recommending a different OTC product is a pharmacist task, outside technician scope.
Learn this topic: Therapeutic duplication: when two prescriptions do the same job 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: PERCOCET (oxycodone hydrochloride and acetaminophen) tablets, label · DailyMed: TYLENOL EXTRA STRENGTH (acetaminophen) caplets, Drug Facts · FDA: Acetaminophen (drug class information) · PTCB: PTCE Content Outline (effective January 6, 2026) ·
A patient's profile shows Hyzaar 50 mg/12.5 mg daily. A new prescription arrives for losartan 50 mg daily, and the system flags a duplication. Why?
Correct answer: A
Hyzaar is a combination of losartan (an angiotensin II receptor blocker) and hydrochlorothiazide (a diuretic). A separate losartan prescription doubles the ARB the patient already gets inside the combination tablet. Always check every ingredient of a combination product.
- A Correct: Hyzaar contains losartan plus hydrochlorothiazide, so the new losartan duplicates it.
- B Lisinopril is in Zestoretic, not Hyzaar.
- C Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker; the diuretic in Hyzaar is hydrochlorothiazide.
- D Neither product is a statin; Hyzaar treats high blood pressure.
Learn this topic: Therapeutic duplication: when two prescriptions do the same job 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: HYZAAR (losartan potassium and hydrochlorothiazide) tablets, label · DailyMed: ZESTORETIC (lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide) tablets, label · DailyMed: COZAAR (losartan potassium) tablets, label ·
Viagra (sildenafil) labeling lists a contraindication with which group of drugs?
Correct answer: A
Sildenafil strengthens the blood-pressure-lowering effect of nitrates, so the Viagra label contraindicates its use with organic nitrates or nitrites in any form. Alpha-blockers are a caution, not a contraindication: the patient should be stable on the alpha-blocker and start at a low sildenafil dose. A contraindication means the two should not be used together.
- A Correct: the Viagra label contraindicates use with organic nitrates because of the risk of severe low blood pressure.
- B Alpha-blockers need caution and a low starting dose, but the label does not contraindicate them.
- C Statins are not listed as a contraindication in the Viagra label.
- D Proton pump inhibitors are not listed as a contraindication in the Viagra label.
Learn this topic: Drug interactions and contraindications: the five types and the big ones 6-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: VIAGRA (sildenafil citrate) tablets, label ·
A patient takes Synthroid each morning and plans to start a calcium carbonate supplement. What does the Synthroid label say about calcium carbonate?
Correct answer: D
The Synthroid label says calcium carbonate and ferrous sulfate can bind levothyroxine and reduce its absorption, which can bring back hypothyroidism. It tells patients to take Synthroid at least 4 hours apart from these products. This is a drug–supplement interaction that the pharmacist explains to the patient.
- A Calcium binds levothyroxine and lowers absorption, so taking them together is the problem.
- B The label manages this by spacing the doses; it does not contraindicate calcium.
- C Thirty minutes is too short; the label requires at least 4 hours.
- D Correct: the label says to give Synthroid at least 4 hours apart from calcium carbonate.
Learn this topic: Drug interactions and contraindications: the five types and the big ones 6-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: SYNTHROID (levothyroxine sodium) tablets, label ·
A patient on warfarin has had a stable INR for months. Which dietary change could LOWER the patient's response to warfarin?
Correct answer: C
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist, and green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamin K. The warfarin label lists increased vitamin K intake as a cause of a decreased INR response and tells patients to keep a consistent amount of vitamin K and avoid drastic diet changes. Eating much less vitamin K would push the INR the other way.
- A A consistent, balanced diet is what the label recommends to keep the INR stable.
- B Eating less vitamin K tends to raise the INR response, not lower it.
- C Correct: a sudden rise in vitamin K intake can decrease warfarin's effect.
- D Water intake is not a vitamin K source and is not listed as affecting the INR.
Learn this topic: Drug interactions and contraindications: the five types and the big ones 6-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: JANTOVEN (warfarin sodium) tablets, label ·
A patient picking up Flagyl (metronidazole) capsules mentions plans to drink wine at a party this weekend. What does the label say about alcohol?
Correct answer: B
The Flagyl label warns that oral metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol: abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, headache and flushing. It says to stop alcohol, and products containing propylene glycol, during therapy and for at least three days afterward. The technician brings the patient's question to the pharmacist for counseling.
- A The label says to avoid alcohol for the whole course of therapy and for at least 3 days after, not just before the first dose.
- B Correct: the label says to avoid alcohol during and for at least 3 days after therapy.
- C The alcohol warning applies to oral metronidazole, including these capsules.
- D Alcohol causes a disulfiram-like reaction; it does not speed up the drug.
Learn this topic: Drug interactions and contraindications: the five types and the big ones 6-minute lesson
A patient picks up nitroglycerin 0.4 mg tablets (Nitrostat) for angina. According to the label, how is one tablet taken at the first sign of an attack?
Correct answer: C
Nitrostat is a sublingual tablet: at the onset of an attack one tablet goes under the tongue or in the buccal pouch and is allowed to dissolve without swallowing. One more tablet may be used every 5 minutes, but the label recommends no more than 3 tablets within 15 minutes. Strengths are 0.3 mg, 0.4 mg and 0.6 mg.
- A Swallowing the tablet is the wrong route; the label directs the patient to let it dissolve without swallowing.
- B Chewing and swallowing treats it like an ordinary oral tablet, but Nitrostat is a sublingual dosage form.
- C Correct: Nitrostat is a sublingual tablet placed under the tongue or in the buccal pouch and allowed to dissolve without swallowing.
- D Nitrostat is not a tablet for oral solution; the label says to place it under the tongue or in the buccal pouch.
Learn this topic: How strength, dosage form and label directions tell a patient how to take a drug 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: NITROSTAT (nitroglycerin) sublingual tablets, Viatris label ·
A prescriber orders amoxicillin 600 mg by mouth every 12 hours for a child. The pharmacy stocks amoxicillin for oral suspension 400 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters are in each dose?
Correct answer: B
Volume per dose = dose ÷ concentration: 600 mg ÷ (400 mg/5 mL) = 600 x 5 ÷ 400 = 7.5 mL. Always check whether the concentration is stated per 1 mL or per 5 mL. Amoxicillin for oral suspension is labeled in 125, 200, 250 and 400 mg/5 mL strengths, so reading the strength on the bottle is part of the calculation.
- A This inverts the ratio (400 mg / 600 mg x 5 mL) instead of dividing the dose by the concentration.
- B Correct: 600 mg x (5 mL / 400 mg) = 7.5 mL per dose.
- C This is the total for both daily doses (7.5 mL x 2), not the volume of one dose.
- D This divides 600 by 400 but forgets that the concentration is per 5 mL, not per 1 mL.
Learn this topic: How strength, dosage form and label directions tell a patient how to take a drug 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: Amoxicillin capsules, tablets, chewable tablets and for oral suspension label ·
A patient has trouble swallowing solid oral doses. Which product's FDA label gives directions for opening it and mixing the contents with applesauce?
Correct answer: D
Most extended-release and many specialty capsules must be swallowed whole: tamsulosin capsules are not to be crushed, chewed or opened, Pradaxa capsules are swallowed whole, and Procardia XL tablets are not chewed, divided or crushed. Omeprazole delayed-release capsules are an exception the label spells out: open the capsule, sprinkle the pellets on a tablespoon of soft applesauce that is not hot and swallow at once without chewing the pellets.
- A The tamsulosin label says the capsules should not be crushed, chewed or opened.
- B The Pradaxa label says to swallow capsules whole, because breaking, chewing or emptying them can increase drug exposure.
- C The Procardia XL label says to swallow the tablets whole and not chew, divide or crush them.
- D Correct: the omeprazole delayed-release capsule label lets patients open the capsule, empty the pellets onto a tablespoon of applesauce and swallow right away without chewing.
Learn this topic: How strength, dosage form and label directions tell a patient how to take a drug 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: Omeprazole delayed-release capsules label · DailyMed: Tamsulosin hydrochloride capsules label · DailyMed: PRADAXA (dabigatran etexilate) capsules, Boehringer Ingelheim label · DailyMed: PROCARDIA XL (nifedipine) extended-release tablets, Pfizer label ·
A prescription for azithromycin 250 mg tablets reads: take 2 tablets (500 mg) on day 1, then 1 tablet (250 mg) once daily on days 2 through 5. How many tablets complete the course?
Correct answer: A
The Zithromax label lists a regimen of 500 mg as a single dose on day 1 followed by 250 mg once daily on days 2 through 5, so the course lasts 5 days. With 250 mg tablets that is 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 6 tablets (1.5 g total). Count tablets day by day whenever the first dose is a loading dose.
- A Correct: 2 tablets on day 1 plus 1 tablet on each of days 2 to 5 (4 tablets) = 6 tablets.
- B This counts one tablet per day for 5 days and misses the second tablet on day 1.
- C This applies the day 1 dose of 2 tablets to all 5 days.
- D This counts only days 2 through 5 and leaves out day 1.
Learn this topic: How strength, dosage form and label directions tell a patient how to take a drug 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: ZITHROMAX (azithromycin) tablets and oral suspension, Pfizer label ·
Which adverse reaction does the lisinopril (Zestril) label list as common in patients treated for hypertension?
Correct answer: D
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril commonly cause cough; the Zestril label lists headache, dizziness and cough as common adverse reactions in hypertension. A patient who says a blood pressure pill makes them cough is describing a known side effect, which the pharmacist should hear about. Matching a drug to its signature side effect is a core skill in this area.
- A Gynecomastia is the most common adverse reaction of spironolactone, not a listed effect of lisinopril.
- B Tendon rupture is a boxed-warning reaction of fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin.
- C Lactic acidosis is the boxed warning of metformin, not a common lisinopril reaction.
- D Correct: the label lists headache, dizziness and cough as common adverse reactions in hypertension.
Learn this topic: How to tell a common side effect from a severe reaction or a true drug allergy 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: ZESTRIL (lisinopril) tablets label · DailyMed: ALDACTONE (spironolactone) tablets, Pfizer label · DailyMed: Ciprofloxacin tablets, Hikma label · DailyMed: Metformin hydrochloride tablets label ·
While picking up a refill, a patient taking atorvastatin (Lipitor) mentions new, unexplained muscle pain and weakness. What is the best technician action?
Correct answer: B
Statins can cause myopathy and rhabdomyolysis; the Lipitor label instructs patients to promptly report unexplained muscle pain, tenderness or weakness, especially with malaise or fever. A technician who hears this refers the patient to the pharmacist right away. The pharmacist then decides what the patient should do, including whether to contact the prescriber.
- A Unexplained muscle pain can signal myopathy or rhabdomyolysis, which the label treats as serious.
- B Correct: the label tells patients to promptly report unexplained muscle pain, tenderness or weakness, so the pharmacist must be involved.
- C Suggesting an OTC pain reliever bypasses the pharmacist and could mask a reaction the label tells patients to report promptly.
- D Telling a patient to stop a medication is a clinical decision for the pharmacist or prescriber, not the technician.
Learn this topic: How to tell a common side effect from a severe reaction or a true drug allergy 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: LIPITOR (atorvastatin calcium) tablets, Viatris label ·
A patient's profile lists an allergy to penicillin (hives). Which new prescription should the technician flag for the pharmacist before processing?
Correct answer: A
Brand names can hide a drug class: Augmentin is amoxicillin/clavulanate, which its label calls a penicillin-class antibacterial plus a beta-lactamase inhibitor. Its label lists a serious hypersensitivity reaction to other beta-lactams, such as penicillins or cephalosporins, as a contraindication. Any penicillin-class drug for a patient with a documented penicillin allergy goes to the pharmacist.
- A Correct: Augmentin contains amoxicillin, a penicillin-class antibacterial, so it conflicts with a penicillin allergy.
- B Zithromax is azithromycin, a macrolide, not a penicillin.
- C Bactrim DS is sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim; it matters for a sulfa allergy, not a penicillin allergy.
- D Macrobid is nitrofurantoin, which is not a penicillin.
Learn this topic: How to tell a common side effect from a severe reaction or a true drug allergy 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: AUGMENTIN (amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium) label · DailyMed: ZITHROMAX (azithromycin) tablets and oral suspension, Pfizer label · DailyMed: BACTRIM and BACTRIM DS (sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim) tablets label · DailyMed: MACROBID (nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals) capsules label ·
Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is indicated as replacement therapy for which condition?
Correct answer: B
Levothyroxine is L-thyroxine (T4) and is indicated as replacement therapy for hypothyroidism. Its boxed warning says thyroid hormones must not be used to treat obesity or for weight loss. Knowing the condition a drug treats lets the technician spot a mismatch between a drug and the diagnosis on an order.
- A Hyperthyroidism means too much thyroid hormone; adding levothyroxine would not treat it.
- B Correct: Synthroid is indicated as replacement therapy in congenital or acquired hypothyroidism.
- C Type 2 diabetes is treated with drugs such as metformin, not thyroid hormone.
- D The boxed warning says thyroid hormones should not be used for obesity or weight loss.
Learn this topic: How to match a medication to the condition it is indicated for 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: SYNTHROID (levothyroxine sodium) tablets, AbbVie label · DailyMed: Metformin hydrochloride tablets label ·
Which statement matches the labeled indication of sumatriptan tablets (Imitrex)?
Correct answer: D
Sumatriptan is a triptan taken when a migraine starts; the label limits it to acute treatment of migraine with or without aura in adults. The label also says it is not indicated for prevention of migraine attacks or for cluster headache. Acute-versus-preventive is a common indication distinction.
- A The label states sumatriptan is not indicated for the prevention of migraine attacks.
- B The label states sumatriptan tablets are not indicated for cluster headache.
- C Tension-type headache is not a labeled indication; the tablets are labeled only for acute migraine.
- D Correct: Imitrex tablets are indicated for the acute treatment of migraine with or without aura in adults.
Learn this topic: How to match a medication to the condition it is indicated for 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: IMITREX (sumatriptan) tablets, GlaxoSmithKline label ·
Which product is labeled to treat acute episodes of bronchospasm, making it a rescue inhaler?
Correct answer: C
Rescue (quick-relief) and maintenance (controller) drugs have different indications. Albuterol HFA is labeled to treat or prevent bronchospasm, including acute episodes. Fluticasone HFA, tiotropium and montelukast are long-term controllers whose labels say they are not for acute bronchospasm or acute attacks.
- A Fluticasone HFA is a maintenance inhaled corticosteroid, and its label says it is not indicated for relief of acute bronchospasm.
- B Spiriva HandiHaler is a once-daily maintenance treatment for COPD, and its label says it is not a rescue medication.
- C Correct: Ventolin HFA is indicated for the treatment or prevention of bronchospasm and has dosing for acute episodes.
- D Singulair is for prophylaxis and chronic treatment of asthma, and its label says it is not indicated for an acute attack.
Learn this topic: How to match a medication to the condition it is indicated for 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: VENTOLIN HFA (albuterol sulfate) inhalation aerosol, GlaxoSmithKline label · DailyMed: Fluticasone propionate HFA inhalation aerosol label · DailyMed: SPIRIVA HANDIHALER (tiotropium bromide) label · DailyMed: SINGULAIR (montelukast sodium) label ·
Finasteride is sold as Proscar 5 mg and Propecia 1 mg tablets. Which pairing of product and labeled indication is correct?
Correct answer: A
The same active ingredient can carry different indications under different brand names and strengths. Proscar (finasteride 5 mg once daily) treats symptomatic benign prostatic hyperplasia, and Propecia (finasteride 1 mg once daily) treats male pattern hair loss in men only. Matching the strength to the indication helps catch a wrong-product selection.
- A Correct: Proscar 5 mg is labeled for symptomatic benign prostatic hyperplasia, and Propecia 1 mg for male pattern hair loss in men.
- B This reverses the two products; the 5 mg tablet is the BPH product.
- C Propecia is labeled for men only and is not indicated for use in women.
- D Neither finasteride product is labeled for hypertension.
Learn this topic: How to match a medication to the condition it is indicated for 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: PROSCAR (finasteride) tablets, Organon label · DailyMed: PROPECIA (finasteride) tablets, Organon label ·
A technician reconstitutes amoxicillin-clavulanate potassium for oral suspension. According to the product label, how is the reconstituted suspension stored, and when is any unused portion discarded?
Correct answer: B
Each reconstituted suspension has its own storage condition and discard period, printed in sections 2 and 16 of its label. Amoxicillin-clavulanate potassium suspension is refrigerated and discarded after 10 days, while plain amoxicillin suspension is kept 14 days. The technician writes the storage instruction and the discard date on the bottle when mixing it.
- A Room temperature and 14 days do not match this label, which calls for refrigeration and a 10-day limit.
- B Correct: the label says to store the reconstituted suspension under refrigeration and discard unused suspension after 10 days.
- C Refrigeration is right, but 14 days is the limit for plain amoxicillin or cephalexin suspension, not amoxicillin-clavulanate.
- D Reconstituted oral antibiotic suspensions are not frozen; no such instruction appears on the label.
Learn this topic: Drug stability: how long mixed, opened and in-use products last 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: Amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium for oral suspension (USAntibiotics) label, sections 2 and 16 · DailyMed: Amoxicillin for oral suspension (USAntibiotics) label, sections 2 and 16 ·
A patient's insulin glargine (Lantus) 10 mL multiple-dose vial was first punctured on October 2. Using the in-use period on the Lantus label, which discard date should be written on the vial?
Correct answer: C
The Lantus storage table gives an in-use (opened) vial 28 days, whether it is refrigerated or kept at room temperature up to 86°F (30°C). To find the discard date, start from the date of first use and add the in-use days: October 2 + 28 days = October 30. The vial is also discarded sooner if the printed expiration date comes first.
- A October 23 is only 21 days after first use; the Lantus in-use period is 28 days.
- B November 13 is 42 days after first use, which is longer than the 28 days the label allows.
- C Correct: an opened Lantus vial may be used for 28 days, and October 2 plus 28 days is October 30.
- D November 27 is 56 days after first use, which is the in-use period for insulin degludec (Tresiba), not Lantus.
Learn this topic: Drug stability: how long mixed, opened and in-use products last 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: Lantus (insulin glargine) label, section 16.2 Storage · DailyMed: Tresiba (insulin degludec) label, section 16 Storage ·
An unopened Humulin N KwikPen was kept at room temperature (below 86°F) for 5 days before the patient's first injection. Based on the storage table and its footnotes in section 16.2 of the Humulin N label, for how many more days may the patient use this pen after that first injection?
Correct answer: A
For Humulin N, the label counts room-temperature time from the moment the product leaves the refrigerator, not from the first injection. The KwikPen has a 14-day room-temperature total and the vial has a 31-day total, both including unopened and in-use time. Subtract the days already spent at room temperature to find what is left.
- A Correct: a Humulin N KwikPen at room temperature may be used for a total of 14 days, counting unopened and in-use time, so 14 − 5 = 9 days remain.
- B 14 days ignores the label note that the 5 unopened days at room temperature count toward the 14-day total.
- C 23 days subtracts the 5 days from 28 days, an in-use period that belongs to other insulins, not the Humulin N pen.
- D 26 days subtracts the 5 days from the 31-day total, which applies to the Humulin N vial, not the KwikPen.
Learn this topic: Drug stability: how long mixed, opened and in-use products last 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: Humulin N (human insulin isophane) label, section 16.2 Storage and Handling ·
Vaccines and medications labeled for refrigerated storage are kept within which temperature range?
Correct answer: D
The refrigerator range on drug labels and in CDC vaccine guidance is 2°C to 8°C (36°F to 46°F). Controlled room temperature is 20°C to 25°C (68°F to 77°F), and the vaccine freezer range is −50°C to −15°C (−58°F to 5°F). Knowing all three lets you match any storage label quickly.
- A 20°C to 25°C (68°F to 77°F) is controlled room temperature, not refrigeration.
- B −50°C to −15°C (−58°F to 5°F) is the freezer range for frozen vaccines such as varicella.
- C 8°C to 15°C (46°F to 59°F) is warmer than a refrigerator; it is not the refrigerated range on labels.
- D Correct: labels and CDC give the refrigerator range as 2°C to 8°C (36°F to 46°F).
Learn this topic: Medication storage: temperature ranges, light protection and restricted access 5-minute lesson
Source: CDC Vaccine Storage and Handling Toolkit (PDF) · DailyMed: Lantus (insulin glargine) label, section 16.2 Storage ·
A patient picking up an epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen) asks whether it should be kept in the refrigerator. According to the EpiPen label, how should it be stored?
Correct answer: B
EpiPen is stored at controlled room temperature, 20°C to 25°C (68°F to 77°F), with excursions to 15°C to 30°C (59°F to 86°F) permitted, and it is never refrigerated. Epinephrine is light sensitive, so the pen stays in its carrier tube. It is replaced if the solution is discolored, cloudy or has particles.
- A The label says not to refrigerate EpiPen.
- B Correct: the label says to store EpiPen at 20°C to 25°C (68°F to 77°F), not refrigerate it, and keep it in the carrier tube to protect it from light.
- C Epinephrine is light sensitive, so the label says to keep the auto-injector in its carrier tube.
- D The label never calls for refrigeration, for any length of time.
Learn this topic: Medication storage: temperature ranges, light protection and restricted access 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: EpiPen (epinephrine injection) auto-injector label, section 16 Storage and Handling ·
A retail pharmacy keeps its Schedule II stock bottles dispersed among the noncontrolled stock on its regular shelves, arranged so they are hard to find, instead of in a locked cabinet. Under federal law (21 CFR 1301.75), is this storage allowed?
Correct answer: C
Under 21 CFR 1301.75(b), Schedule II–V controlled substances are stored in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet, but pharmacies and institutional practitioners may instead disperse them throughout the noncontrolled stock in a way that obstructs theft or diversion. The dispersal option covers Schedule II drugs too. Some states set stricter rules, but this item asks only about federal law.
- A The Class V safe requirement in 1301.75(e) applies only to a few substances such as carfentanil and etorphine, not to Schedule II drugs in general.
- B The rule lets pharmacies, not only hospitals or other institutional practitioners, disperse controlled substances in stock.
- C Correct: 1301.75(b) lets pharmacies disperse Schedule II–V drugs throughout the noncontrolled stock in a manner that obstructs theft or diversion.
- D The federal dispersal option covers Schedules II, III, IV and V alike; Schedule II is not excluded.
Learn this topic: Medication storage: temperature ranges, light protection and restricted access 5-minute lesson
Source: eCFR 21 CFR 1301.75 Physical security controls for practitioners ·
A nurse opens a multiple-dose vial of an injectable medication today. The manufacturer gives no specific in-use date for the opened vial. According to CDC injection safety guidance, when must the vial be discarded?
Correct answer: D
Once a multiple-dose vial is opened, CDC says to date it and discard it within 28 days, unless the manufacturer states a different date for the opened vial. The beyond-use date can never be later than the manufacturer's original expiration date. Single-dose vials are for one patient only.
- A 24 hours is not the CDC rule for an opened multiple-dose vial.
- B Discarding at the end of a shift is not the CDC rule for an opened multiple-dose vial.
- C The printed expiration date applies to the unopened vial; once opened, a shorter beyond-use date applies.
- D Correct: CDC says an opened (needle-punctured) multiple-dose vial is dated and discarded within 28 days unless the manufacturer states another date.
Learn this topic: Drug stability: how long mixed, opened and in-use products last 5-minute lesson
Source: CDC Injection Safety: Clinical Safety (single-dose and multiple-dose vials) ·
A pharmacy receives a shipment of unopened latanoprost ophthalmic solution (Xalatan) bottles. According to the label, how should this unopened stock be stored?
Correct answer: A
Xalatan has two storage stages: unopened bottles are refrigerated at 2°C to 8°C (36°F to 46°F), and an opened bottle may be kept at room temperature up to 25°C (77°F) for 6 weeks. It is protected from light throughout. Pharmacy stock is unopened, so it goes in the refrigerator.
- A Correct: the label says to protect from light and store unopened bottles under refrigeration at 2°C to 8°C (36°F to 46°F).
- B Room temperature up to 77°F (25°C) is allowed only after a bottle is opened, and only for 6 weeks.
- C Xalatan is refrigerated, not frozen.
- D Unopened bottles need refrigeration, and the label says to protect the product from light.
Learn this topic: Medication storage: temperature ranges, light protection and restricted access 5-minute lesson
Source: DailyMed: Xalatan (latanoprost) ophthalmic solution label, section 16 Storage ·
Sign in to keep your progress on all devices. It's free.
Fix these topics first
Every topic
Your score by domain
This is an estimate from a practice set. Official scores come only from the test maker.
About this PTCB Medications practice test
- PracticePractice mode shows the answer after each question, with no timer. Timed exam mode comes with full access.
- Go at your paceYour answers save in this browser, so you can stop and come back later.
- Read your reportSee your score for each section, and why every answer is right or wrong.
- Fix weak spotsMissed questions go to your mistake book. Learn the topic, then try again.
What your score means
The real PTCE reports a scaled score from 1,000 to 1,600, and 1,400 passes.
PTCB doesn’t publish how raw scores convert, so a practice percentage is only a rough guide.
Your score is the percent of questions you got right, with a score for each domain (and, with full access, each knowledge area).
PTCB format
| Domain | Share of the exam | About this many scored questions |
|---|---|---|
| Medications | 35% | 28 |
| Federal Requirements | 18.75% | 15 |
| Patient Safety and Quality Assurance | 23.75% | 19 |
| Order Entry and Processing | 22.5% | 18 |
The PTCE has 90 multiple-choice questions (80 scored) in 110 minutes. The question counts are our arithmetic; PTCB publishes only the shares.
Common questions
Are these real PTCE questions?
No. These are original practice questions we wrote to the published PTCB content outline. They are not real exam questions.
How long does it take?
This set has 31 questions. Practice mode has no timer, so take as long as you need. With full access, exam mode gives you 43 minutes.
Can I stop and finish later?
Yes. Your answers save in this browser, so you can close the page and pick up where you left off.
Does the PTCB exam test state law?
No. The PTCE tests federal law, and so do our questions.
Can I use a calculator on the PTCE?
A calculator is built into the exam. You can’t bring your own.
Is this practice test free?
Yes. No card. Start without an account; after 15 questions, a free account saves your progress. A paid plan unlocks all 320 verified PTCB questions, timed exam mode, sets on one topic and a score for every topic.